Let $X = \text{Spec}(k[X_{1}, \ldots, X_{n}] / I)$ be an affine scheme that may be non reduced. Therefore, we can consider its associated reduced affine scheme $X_{red} = \text{Spec}(k[X_{1}, \ldots, X_{n}] / \sqrt{I})$. Clearly, there is a closed embedding $X_{red} \subseteq X$ which is an homeomorphism.
Let now $TC_{x}X$ be the tangent cone to the scheme $X$ at a closed point $x \in X(k)$. This is, $$ TC_{x}X = \text{Spec}(\text{gr}(\mathcal{O}_{X,x})),$$ where $\mathcal{O}_{X,x}$ is the stalk of the structure sheaf of the scheme $X$ at the point $x \in X(k)$, and $$\text{gr}(\mathcal{O}_{X, x}) = \bigoplus_{p \geq 0} \mathfrak{m}^{p} / \mathfrak{m}^{p+1},$$ being $\mathfrak{m}$ the maximal ideal of the local ring $\mathcal{O}_{X,x}$.
Recall that if $T_{x}X$ is the tangent Zariski space of $X$ at the point $x \in X(k)$, we can regard $T_{x}X$ as the set of $k$-rational points of the scheme $$ T_{x}X^{\text{sch}} = \text{Spec}(\text{Sym} (\mathfrak{m} / \mathfrak{m}^{2})),$$ with $\text{Sym} (\mathfrak{m} / \mathfrak{m}^{2})$ the symmetric algebra on $\mathfrak{m} / \mathfrak{m}^{2} \simeq T_{x}X^{*}$.
Now, using the reduced affine scheme $X_{red}$ I have the following two questions:
- I know that there is a canonically closed inmersion $TC_{x}X \subseteq T_{x}X^{\text{sch}}$. Now, using that there is a surjective morphism of local rings $$ \mathcal{O}_{X, x} \to \mathcal{O}_{X_{red},x}$$ because of the fact that $\mathcal{O}_{X_{red}, x} = \mathcal{O}_{X,x} / \sqrt{ 0}$, being $\sqrt{0}$ the nilradical of $\mathcal{O}_{X,x}$. Is it also true that we have a canonical inmersion $TC_{x}X \subseteq T_{x}X_{red}^{\text{sch}}$? Or at least, is it true that $TC_{x}X (k) \subseteq T_{x}X_{red}^{\text{sch}}(k)$ ? I know that $T_{x}X_{red}^{\text{sch}} \subseteq T_{x}X^{\text{sch}}$, but I don't know how to continue.
- Suppose we have a locally closed subset $Y \subset X$ and that we equip $Y$ with the reduced locally closed subscheme structure. In this case, if there is $x \in X(k) \cap Y(k)$ such that $TC_{x}X(k) = T_{x}Y^{\text{sch}}(k)$, can we say affirm $T_{x}Y^{\text{sch}}(k) = T_{x}X_{red}^{\text{sch}}(k)$? I think this is true because $TC_{x}X(k) = T_{x}Y^{\text{sch}}(k)$ means that $TC_{x}X(k)$ is ''linear'', but I am not totally sure about how to proceed.
Any help is kindly welcomed. Most of the definitions and facts used are based on Mumford's Red book and on the book The geometry of schemes of Eisenbud and Harris.