I stumbled upon this slick proof of Gauss lemma.
Let $A$ be a commutative ring with identity. Call a polynomial $f\in A[x]$ primitive iff the ideal generated by its coefficients is the entire $A$. Let $f, g\in A$ be primitive. Then $fg$ is primitive too.
I regurgitate the proof:
Proof. Suppose not. Then the ideal generated by the coefficients of $fg$ is proper. Since $A$ has identity, we can apply Zorn's lemma and find a maximal ideal $\mathfrak m$ that contains all the coefficients of $fg$. Since $A$ is commutative too, $\mathfrak m$ is prime as well, and hence, $A/\mathfrak m$ an integral domain. Now, we view the coefficients of polynomials in $A[x]$ as the members of $A/\mathfrak m$. Then, $fg = 0$, but $f, g\ne 0$, which violates the integral domain-ness of $A/\mathfrak m[x]$. (For if $f = 0$, then all the coefficients of $f$ would be in $\mathfrak m$, and since $f$ is primitive, $1\in\mathfrak m$, violating the maximality. Similarly, $g\ne 0$.)
Question: It appears as though the definition of polynomial multiplication is nowhere being used in the proof, which is quite counterintuitive!–for we are making a comment about the coefficients of $fg$, which are evaluated from those of $f$ and $g$ by polynomial multiplication.
One way that the definition of polynomial multiplication is seeping in is due to the usage of the fact that $R[x]$ is an integral domain if $R$ is one. But this seems to be like a "very little" part of the much more mouthful definition of polynomial multiplication.
Can you spot something?