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I am having trouble reconciling the following two questions:

One seems to show that meromorphic functions have at most countably many poles while the other proofs that it is a finite number. My question is essentially whether the latter is generally true or whether there can be a meromorphic function with a countably infinite number of poles? If so, under what conditions is this possible?

My suspicion is that it is all about the domain, e.g. that functions that are meromorphic on $\mathbb{C}$ can have infinitely many poles while meromorphic functions on $\hat{\mathbb{C}}$ cannot. Then all functions which are meromorphic on $\mathbb{C}$ and have infinitely many poles are not meromorphic on $\hat{\mathbb{C}}$. Are these statements correct?

Wolpertinger
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