In various comments to answers of this question, the following claim is made without proof. It seems to be true based on a few examples, but I can't quite prove it.
Suppose $\ a,b\in\mathbb{Q}^+.\ $ Then $\ \exists\ c,d,k\in\mathbb{Z}^+,\ $ such that $\ a = \frac{c}{k},\ $ and $\ b = \frac{d}{k},\ $ and $\ \gcd(c,d,k) = 1.$
Here is my attempt to prove it:
There exists unique $\ w,x,y,z \in \mathbb{Z}^+\ $ such that $\ a = \frac{w}{x},\ b = \frac{y}{z},\ $ and $\ \gcd(w,x) = \gcd(y,z) = 1.$
Then, I think that
$$\ a = \frac{ w\cdot \frac{z}{\gcd(x,z)} }{ x\cdot \frac{z}{\gcd(x,z)} },\quad b = \frac{ y\cdot \frac{x}{\gcd(x,z)} }{ z\cdot \frac{x}{\gcd(x,z)} } $$
solves the problem, because for some reason we should have:
$$ \gcd\left( \frac{wz}{\gcd(x,z)}, \frac{xz}{\gcd(x,z)}, \frac{yz}{\gcd(x,z)}\right) = 1.\quad (1) $$
However, I don't see an obvious way to prove $\ (1).\ $ I have observed that each of the terms of $\ (1)\ $ can be manipulated using the identity: $\ xz = \gcd(x,z) \cdot \text{lcm}(x,z),\ $ but I don't quite see how to make progress with this.
I also feel I am overlooking an alternative, more straightforward approach to the original claim...