I am trying to understand the following example from Apostol's Mathematical Analysis (p.275).
Let $f(x):[0,\infty)\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be defined by $$ f(x)=\frac{(-1)^n}{n}, \,\,\,\, x\in [n-1,n), \,\,\,\, n=1,2,3,\ldots $$ From the graph of the function, we see that the area estimation is essentially $-1+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\cdots$ which is $-\log 2$.
But, I could not realize why the function is not integrable on $[0,\infty)$ (as Apostol asserts).
If we pick a positive point $b$ on real line, there will be some integer $n$ just behind it, so area bounded by $f$ from $0$ to $b$ will be between $-1+\frac{1}{2}-\cdots +\frac{(-1)^n}{n}$ and $-1+\frac{1}{2}-\cdots +\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n+1}$ and these two series are converging to $-\log 2$. So how the author is asserting that $f$ is not integrable on $[0,\infty)$?