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Let $f \colon X \to Y$ and $g \colon Y \to X$ be continuous maps with $g\circ f = 1_X$. Prove that if $Y$ is Hausdorff, then so is $X$, and $f(X)$ is closed in $Y$.

Consider the map \begin{align} h \colon Y &\to X \times Y \to Y \times Y \\ y &\mapsto (g(y),y) \mapsto (f(g(y)),y) \end{align} which is continuous because is the composition of continuous maps. Since $Y$ is Hausdorff, the diagonal $\Delta_Y \subseteq Y \times Y$ is closed. Therefore $f(X)=h^{-1}(\Delta_Y)$ gives the conclusion.

Is it correct? And, how do I prove that $X$ is Hausdorff?

azif00
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karJuSa
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4 Answers4

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Since $f$ is injective continuous, $X$ is Hausdorff. See Pre-image of Hausdorff space is Hausdorff

s.h
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$X$ is Hausdorff. Let $x_1,x_2\in X$. Since $g\circ f=1_X$, then $f$ is 1-1, and hence $y_1=f(x_1)\ne f(x_2)=y_2$. As $Y$ is a Hausdorff space, then there exist $V_1,V_2\subset $Y open and disjoint, with $y_1\in V_1$ and $y_2\in V_2$. Clearly $U_1=f^{-1}(V_1)$ and $U_2=f^{-1}(V_2)$ are open and disjoint subsets of $X$, and $x_1\in U_1$, $x_2\in U_2$.

$f(X)$ is closed. Observe that $f(X)=g^{-1}(X)$. Note that, as $g$ is continuous, then for every $K\subset X$ closed in $X$, the set $g^{-1}(K)$ is closed in $Y$.

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The answers by Yiorgos S. Smyrlis and s.h already give very short answers for both your questions, but you might be interested in more background:

$f$ is a section (with $g$ being the corresponding retraction) and therefore $f$ is injective (while $g$ is surjective). If $Y$ is Hausdorff and we have an injective continuous maps $f\colon X\rightarrow Y$, then $X$ is Hausdorff. I gave two different proofs for this here, also using the diagonal criteria for Hausdorff spaces like you to once. You also find a proof here.

Since $g\circ f=\operatorname{id}_X$ is open and $f$ is continuous, we have that $g\vert_{f(X)}\colon f(X)\rightarrow X$ is open. I gave a proof for this here. Since it is also continuous and surjective, it is a quotient map. So you even have the more general result, that a subset $U\subseteq X$ is open iff $g\vert_{f(X)}^{-1}(U)=g^{-1}(U)\cap f(X)\subseteq Y$ is open. Considering $U=X$ and observing $g^{-1}(X)=f(X)$ would give your result as a special case. (But as Yiorgos S. Smyrlis already answered, that observation would already directly yield your result.)

If $X$ is compact, you furthermore have, that $f$ is a topological embedding (See here.) and therefore is a homeomorphism onto its image (if $f(X)\subset Y$ is equipped with the subspace topology).

Samuel Adrian Antz
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  • that guarantees me that f(X) is closed? – karJuSa Dec 20 '22 at 02:18
  • Yes. The argument of Yiorgos S. Smyrlis is, that for continuous functions (for which per definition, the preimages of open sets are open) also the preimages of closed sets are closed. (This is because the preimage preserves the complement.). Since $g$ is continuous, and $X$ is open and closed/clopen (per definition of a topology), $f(X)=g^{-1}(X)$ is closed. My argument is an extension of this, in case you could use it. – Samuel Adrian Antz Dec 23 '22 at 13:15
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Let us see that $X$ is Hausdorff, in effect: Let $x_1,x_2 \in X$, as $g\circ f=1_x$ then $f$ is injective and therefore. $$f(x_1)\neq f(x_2)\longrightarrow y_1\neq y_2$$ Since $Y$ is a hausdorff space then there exist $V_1,V_2 \subset Y$ open and disjoint such that $$y_1\in V_1 \ y \ y_2\in V_2$$ Since f is continuous $$f^{-1}(V_1)=U_1$$ $$f^{-1}(V_2)=U_2$$

With $U_1$, $U_2$ are open and furthermore, \begin{equation*} \begin{split} U_1\cap U_2=&f^{-1}(V_1)\cap f^{-1}(V_2)\\ =&f^{-1}(V_1\cap V_2)\\ =&f^{-1}(\emptyset)\\ =&\emptyset \end{split} \end{equation*} where $U_1, U_2 \in X$, with $x_1in U_1, x_2 \in U_2$, so $X$ is hausdorff. \vspace{5mm} \Now we prove that $f(X)$ is closed in Y, indeed, let us consider the function:

\begin{equation*} \begin{split} h: Y \longrightarrow \ X \times Y & \longrightarrow Y\times Y \\ y \longrightarrow (g(y),y) &\longrightarrow (f(g(y)),y) \end{split} \end{equation*}

$h$ is continuous because it is the composition of continuous functions, as $Y$ is hausdorff the diagonal $\Delta_y \subset Y \times Y$ is closed and therefore, $$f(X)=h^{-1}(\Delta_y)$$ is closed.

karJuSa
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