Let $f: \mathbb{R} \longrightarrow(0, \infty)$ be an infinitely differentiable function with $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(t) d t=1$. Then prove/disprove that
(i) There exists $t_0 \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $f\left(t_0\right) \geq f(t)$ for all $t \in \mathbb{R}$,
(ii) $f^{\prime \prime}(a)=0$ for some $a \in \Bbb R$.
It is clear that $f$ should be bounded, otherwise $\lim_{|t| \to \infty}f(t) \not \lt\infty$ which makes trouble for the integrability on $\Bbb R$. But how to say $f$ attains its maximum? where does the differentiability is used?