The question is:
Let $K$ be compact and let $A$ be closed in $\mathrm{\mathbb{R}}^n$, where $K\cap A = \emptyset$. Then, $\exists\epsilon > 0$ so that $\forall x\in K$ it is true that $\,\beta(\epsilon,x)\cap A = \emptyset$
(note that $\beta$ is the ball centered at $x$ with radius $\epsilon$.)
I tried to prove this by contradiction, it went like this.
Proof :
Assume $\,\forall\epsilon>0\;\exists x\in K$ such that $\,\beta(\epsilon,x)\cap A\neq\emptyset$.
Since $x\notin A$ by one of the premises then $\beta(\epsilon,x)\cap A\setminus x \neq \emptyset$ is true. Then by definition of a limit point, $x$ is a limit point of $A$. But since $A$ is closed it contains all of its limit points by definition and thus we have a contradiction.
I went and asked my professor about why this wasn't a valid proof and he told me that from the assumption it doesn't follow that $x$ is a limit point. I still can't wrap my head around why that isn't the case. Could someone please explain? I would be very grateful!
Thank you for taking the time to read my post.