Define on $ \partial \mathbb{D}^2$ the relation: $x \sim y \iff x=y \quad or \quad x=-y$
$S^1$ is homeomorphic to $\partial \mathbb{D}^2/\sim$ ?
The solutions say it is, but I don't understand why.
My thoughts: Since we identify opposite points on $\partial \mathbb{D}^2$, then for example $\partial \mathbb{D}^2/\sim= \{[x]:x=(\cos(\pi t),\sin(\pi t))|0\leq t<1 \}$ which is a half circle. This set looks contractible to me, hence it has a trivial fundamental group which is not the case for $S^1$. Therefore they are not homeomorphic. Maybe even simpler $S^1$ is closed and the set above is not.