I am wondering about how this value is derived.
The definition of the elliptic integral of first kind $K(k)$ is used from Wolfram Alpha (which wierdly goes against the wikipedia definition. $K(k)$ in Wolfram is equal to $K(k^{2})$ in Wikipedia, I think.)
$\begin{align} K(\frac{1}{2})&=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{1}{2}\sin^{2}x}}dx\\ &=\frac{\pi^{3/2}}{2\Gamma^2(\frac{3}{4})}\approx1.854 \end{align}$
I have searched the internet and math.se for days and could not find a proof of this value. All answers to similarly related problems just say that $K(\frac{1}{2})$ is a standard value and "easily derived from the definition".
Also, $E(\frac{1}{2})$ can be derived from $K(\frac{1}{2})$ by Legendre's relation, so I only need to know how to prove the special value of $K(\frac{1}{2})$.
Could somebody please give a proof of this? Thank you so much!