This Wikipedia article states that for a vector space V:
Using the universal property, it follows that the space of (m,n)-tensors admits a natural isomorphism $T^m_n(V) \cong L(\underbrace{V^* \otimes \cdots \otimes V^*}_m \otimes \underbrace{V \otimes \cdots \otimes V}_n; F) \cong L^{m+n}(\underbrace{V^*, \ldots,V^*}_m,\underbrace{V,\ldots,V}_n; F).$
(With $T^m_n(V) = \underbrace{ V\otimes \dots \otimes V}_{m} \otimes \underbrace{ V^*\otimes \dots \otimes V^*}_{n}$).
It seems to me like there are two things wrong with this:
- This is only true if V is finite-dimensional, which is not stated as of this writing (see e.g. this question).
- This does not follow at all from the universal property, but rather from constructing the isomorphism similar to point 2 here - and using the finite dimensionality to prove that this is indeed an isomorphism. (Edit: When I say "this", I mean the asserted isomorphisms between the space of (m,n) tensors and the two spaces on the right hand side, since this is what the article is talking about.)
Am I wrong here, or does the article need fixing?