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Problem: Show that whenever $n ≥ 3, f(n) > α^{n−2}$, where $α = (1 + \sqrt{5})/2$. $F(n)$ is the Fibonacci sequence $(1, 1, 2, \dots )$

Solution: We can use strong induction to prove this inequality. Let $P(n)$ be the statement $f(n) > \alpha ^{n-2}$. We want to show that $P(n)$ is true whenever $n$ is an integer greater than or equal to 3.

BASIS STEP: First, note that

$α < 2 = f(3), \ α^2 = (3 + \sqrt{5})/2 < 3 = f4$, so $P(3)$ and $P(4)$ are true.

INDUCTIVE STEP: Assume that $P(j)$ is true, namely, that $f(j) > α^{j−2}$, for all integers j with $3 ≤ j ≤ k$, where $k ≥ 4$. We must show that $P(k + 1)$ is true, that is, that $f(k+1) > α^{k−1}$. Because α is a solution of $x^2 − x − 1 = 0$ (as the quadratic formula shows), it follows that $α^2 = α + 1$. Therefore,*

$α^{k−1} = α^2 \cdot α^{k−3} = (α + 1)α^{k−3} = α \cdot α^{k−3 + 1} \cdot α^{k−3} = α^{k−2} + α^{k−3}$.

By the inductive hypothesis, because $k ≥ 4$, we have

$f(k−1) > α^{k−3}, \ f(k) > α^{k−2}$.

Therefore, it follows that

$f(k+1) = f(k) + f(k−1) > α^{k−2} + α^{k−3} = α^{k−1}$.

Hence, $P(k + 1)$ is true. This completes the proof.

I am confused on first part of the inductive step, namely:

$α^{k−1}$ = $α^2$ · $α^{k−3}$

I don't understand why $α^{k−1} = α^2 \cdot α^{k−3}$ and I don't understand why $α^2 = α + 1$ since this is a "solution of $x^2 − x − 1 = 0$ (as the quadratic formula shows)"

Kamal Saleh
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Leo
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    I think an indication of where the "Problem" comes from is warranted. Apparently your question is about a part of the induction step, so the confusion in the first line of using both "fn" and "F()" may not be a big obstacle. But what you wrote at the end is just a standard property of exponents, right? – hardmath Nov 28 '22 at 19:14
  • Just write the expanded form and manipulative inequality check. –  Nov 28 '22 at 19:58

1 Answers1

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It is known that: $$x^{a+b}=x^ax^b$$ In your case we have $$a^{k-1}=\alpha^2\alpha^{k-3}=\alpha^{k-3+2}$$ For more info check this link out. Thanks to @hardmath for suggesting this down in the comments.

Your second question is why $\alpha^2=\alpha+1$ (more referred to as $\varphi$ or $\phi$) from the equation $x^2-x-1=0$ If you add $x+1$ to both sides, you get the result.

Kamal Saleh
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