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How can we prove that

$^{6n+2} − ^{6n+1} + 1$ is always divisible by $^2 − + 1$; = 1, 2, 3,...


I attempted to solve this with Mathematical Induction as follows:

Let s(n) = $x^2 - x + 1$ | $^{6n+2} − ^{6n+1} + 1$; = 1, 2, 3,..

Basic Step

Let n = 1 ⇒ $x^2 - x + 1$ | $^8 − ^7 + 1$

I then proved that the remainder is 0 using polynomial long division.

$\frac{^{6n+2} − ^{6n+1} + 1}{x^2 - x + 1}$ = $x^6 - x^4 - x^3 + x + 1$ R 0

∴ s(1) is true

Assumption Step

Assume that s(m) is true

$\frac{^{6m+2} − ^{6m+1} + 1}{x^2 - x + 1}$ = Q(x) where Q(x) is a polynomial

Inductive Step

To prove that s(m+1) is true

$\frac{^{6(m+1)+2} − ^{6(m+1)+1} + 1}{x^2 - x + 1}$ = T(x) where T(x) is a polynomial(x) is a polynomial

$\frac{^{6m+8} − ^{6m+7} + 1}{x^2 - x + 1}$ = T(x)

$\frac{x^6(^{6m+2} − ^{6m+1}) + 1}{x^2 - x + 1}$ = T(x)


However, I'm unsure of how to proceed from here. I would appreciate it if anyone could help me with this. Thanks!

4 Answers4

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Let $$x^{6m+2}-x^{6m+1}+1=\lambda(x^2-x+1)$$ $$x^{6m+8}-x^{6m+7}+1=S$$ $$S=x^6(x^{6m+2}-x^{6m+1})+1$$ $$S=x^6(\lambda(x^2-x+1)-1)+1$$ $$S=x^6\lambda(x^2-x+1)-x^6+1$$ Now dividing $S$ by $x^2-x+1$ yields $$\frac{x^6\lambda(x^2-x+1)}{x^2-x+1}+\frac{1-x^6}{x^2-x+1}$$ $$\frac{x^6\lambda(x^2-x+1)}{x^2-x+1}+\frac{(1+x-x^3-x^4)(x^2-x+1)}{x^2-x+1}$$

Vanessa
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  • You have finished the induction step, however, please check my last comment on poster. It summarizes on lone student work and the comments on my own remarks on lone student answer – WindSoul Nov 25 '22 at 16:41
  • This answers the induction step, and in fact uses $(x^2-x+1) \mid (x^6-1)$. Of course using the latter directly in the form $x^6\equiv 1 \pmod {x^2-x+1}$ is a far simpler way of showing $x^{6n+2}-x^{6n+1}+1 \equiv x^2-x+1 \equiv 0 \pmod {x^2-x+1}$. – Macavity Nov 26 '22 at 08:58
3
  1. Finds the roots of $x^2-x+1$; they are complex
  2. Pick one of them and prove that is a root of $x^{6n+2}-x^{6n+1}+1$; automatically the other one is also a root therefore the two polynomials have common roots, hence the one with lesser number of roots is a factor of the other polynomial.
WindSoul
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  • (+0) This is my prefered answer, but it does not adress the OP's question, who asked for some help to conclude his proof by induction. – Anne Bauval Nov 25 '22 at 16:31
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Define the polynomial

$$P_n(x):=x^{6n+2}−x^{6n+1} + 1$$

Observe that, $x=-1$ is not a root of $x^2-x+1=0$, then multiplying both sides of the equation by $(x+1)$, yields:

$$(x+1)(x^2-x+1)=0$$

This implies that, $x^3= -1,\;x≠-1$.

Therefore, making $x^3\equiv -1$, by $\mod x^2-x+1$, we have:

$$ \begin{align}P_n(x)&\equiv x^2\cdot \left(x^3\right)^{2n}-x\cdot \left(x^3\right)^{2n}+1\\ &\equiv x^2-x+1.\end{align} $$

This completes the proof.


More explicit explanation:

We can rewrite the polynomial $P_n(x)$ as follows:

$$P_n(x):=(x^2-x+1)Q(x)+R(x)$$

where, $Q(x)$ and $R(x)=ax+b$ are polynomials with some real coefficients.

Let $z\in\mathbb C\setminus \mathbb R$ be a root of $x^2-x+1=0$. Since $z≠-1$, multiplication both sides by $(z+1)$ yields $z^3+1=0$. This implies that, $z^3=-1$ and $z\not\in \mathbb R.$

Putting $x=z$ in the original polynomial indentity, we get:

$$ \begin{align}&P_n(z):=\frac {z^3+1}{z+1}Q(z)+R(z)\\ \implies &P_n(z)=0+R(z)\\ \implies &P_n(z)=R(z)\end{align} $$

Then, using $z^3=-1$, we obtain:

$$ \begin{align}P_n(z):&=z^2\cdot \left(z^3\right)^{2n}-z\cdot \left(z^3\right)^{2n}+1\\ &=z^2-z+1\\ &=0\end{align} $$

This leads to:

$$R(z)=az+b=0.$$

This means, $a=b=0$. Therefore, $R(x)\equiv 0$.

Because, if $a=0$, then $b=0$. Thus $R(x)\equiv 0$.

Otherwise, if $a≠0$, then $z=-\frac ba \in \mathbb R$ which gives a contradiction.

lone student
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you could use the relationship between S(m) and S(m+1) such that:

$ x^{6m+2} − x^{6m+1} + 1 $ and $ x^6 * (x^{6m+2} − x^{6m+1} )+1 $ if you use the famous trick of +1 -1 in () we get :

S(m+1) = $ x^6 * (x^{6m+2} − x^{6m+1} +1 )/(x^2 −x +1) +(1-x^6) / (x^2 −x +1) $ = $ (x^6 )* S(m) + (1-x^6) / (x^2 −x +1) $ =$ (x^6 )* Q(x) + (-x^4 -x^3 +x +1 ) $ for some Q(x) polynomial = K(x) polynomial as sum of 2 polynomials

so we get if S(m) is true so is S(m+1) , from the induction it always holds (you already calculated the case S(1) ).

ya.sa
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  • (-1) What is the use of this? Vanessa's prior answer was the same, and cleaner typed. – Anne Bauval Nov 25 '22 at 16:25
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    actually when I posted there where no other comment, and I am new so took some time typing, and the typing is not perfect but I think it is clear. thanks for your comment. – ya.sa Nov 26 '22 at 17:13