I am stuck in the follow problem:
State whether the following statement is true or false:
If $a$ and $b$ are positive integers, and $p$ is prime then $p$ divides $\gcd(a^2,b)$ if and only if p divides $\gcd(a,b^2)$
My work:
When $a=2$, and $b=5$, The $\gcd(4,5) = 1$ and $\gcd(2,25) = 1$, the only "number" that divides $1$, is $1$, but that is not a prime by convention.
But my feeling says: this is not the right answer.
$p$ divides $gcd(a^2,b) \iff $ $p$ divides $gcd(a^2,b)$ ?
– Adam Rubinson Nov 07 '22 at 20:52