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I know the topic of countability of reals has been discussed a lot, but I still don't understand the proofs, including the well-kown diagonal approach. So, please forgive my dilettantism if it has place.

First of all, the main subject: is there anything wrong with this counting approach?counting reals

Here we count each node of the tree which represents all possible numbers in [0, 1). 1 could also be included, as well as the rest. Each new level - is the next digit. Here I chose binary form, but it could certainly be decimal. And I don't see any misses here. So it seems we can still count the reals.

Another question is related to the diagonal proof. But on the other hand it seems to not be a proof. At least for two reasons:

  1. At any given momemnt when we try to construct a new number, we actually take into account just an already counted list, and we surely can get a number which is not yet in the list. But that seems to just mean that we have not yet counted a new number. After all, we're dealing with an infinite list, and at any moment of counting there are still more numbers wich we have not counted yet.
  2. Another point which confuses me is that this same diagonal method will also prove that the set of natural numbers is also uncountable. And that certainly isn't the case. Isn't it such? Same considerations: assuming we have counted all natural numbers, we can construct another natural number which is not (yet) in the list.

Sorry for having two questions in one, but they are closely related. Moreover, the same considerations about the diagonal also confuse me in other proofs of uncountability of reals. They all seem to appeal to the same issue: when we see there is still a new number exists which is not yet in the list, we're actually taking into account an already made list. But it seems to just mean we have not yet counted our new number. Would be thankful for the clarifications.

  • Your proposed counting method only counts real numbers with finite binary expansions. This is a subset of the rational numbers, which are known to be countable. You never count any irrational numbers. – David K Nov 04 '22 at 04:22
  • "at any moment of counting there are still more numbers wich we have not counted yet". You're thinking of this kind of "counting" as a process. It isn't. It is a complete one-to-one correspondence between two sets. Either such a correspondence exists (with all numbers "counted") or it doesn't. – David K Nov 04 '22 at 04:24
  • That's actually what I'm trying to point out: the essense of constructing a number in this diagonal approach only guarantees that our new number does not equal to n other numbers in the set, but the set already has more than n numbers, no matter how big n is. So, I still don't see how this approach can prove uncountability. – user129516 Nov 04 '22 at 10:28
  • @DavidK To be more clear about the "moment of counting", I was mainly talking about how the Cantor's diagonal argument works - it's iterative in it's nature. And it makes sense, cause since we are claiming to have a countable set of numbers, we could iterate through them one by one. But what this method actually does (or proves) is not more that after we iterated throught first k numbers in the list, we can only be sure a number still exists which has not yet been met in those first k, but it could still be later in the given list. So, as I see it, we didn't prove uncountability. – user129516 Nov 04 '22 at 11:41
  • No, I'm saying you've misunderstood Cantor's argument, or it has been misrepresented to you. It is not iterative. It assumes you have already completed the counting. – David K Nov 04 '22 at 11:49
  • Alternatively, you can use an iterative process, but after counting the first $n$ numbers you still don't know what the "missing" number is because you only have its first $n$ digits. In order to get all of the digits of the "missing" number, you need to keep counting. And every place where the "missing" number could have gone ends up being occupied by another number. – David K Nov 04 '22 at 11:54

3 Answers3

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Regarding question 1, every number you list will have a finite binary representation. Thus you only have enumerated a proper subset of the rational numbers. Not anywhere close to all of the reals.

Regarding question 2, your construction of a natural number not in the list has to work for any list of natural numbers, not just a specific list. If I list the natural numbers by setting the n’th entry in the list to be $n$, you cannot construct a natural number that is not in the list.

Joe
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  • It's clrear now to me about finite representation. But regarding list of naturals, seems I either still don't understand, or I can still construct a new natural which is not in the list. Just by the definition of this method: I construct a new number which does not equal to any in the list. Thus, I get a new number an it is still natural. – user129516 Nov 04 '22 at 02:38
  • You construct an infinite sequence of digits, but it is not a natural number, because natural numbers only have a finitely many digits (whereas real numbers have infinitely many digits) – Ted Nov 04 '22 at 02:48
  • Is it really true? I can still construct a number which will probably have much more digits, but this amount will still be finite. – user129516 Nov 04 '22 at 02:56
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The numbers enumerated by your diagram are, in order, $0$, $0.0$, $0.1$, $0.00$, $0.01$, $0.10$, $0.11$, $0.000$, ... etc. Notice that all of these numbers only have at most finitely many nonzero digits, so a number like $0.01010101\ldots = 1/3$ will not be counted.

This is the main reason why the reals are unccuntable, while a set like the rationals is countable. Each rational number is specified by only a finite amount of information (i.e., an integer numerator and denominator), and for this reason they can be counted. But a single real number can have (countably) infinitely many digits, requiring an infinite amount of information to communicate.

In general, any collection in which each element requires a finite amount of information to describe (set of all computer programs, set of all polynomials with integer coefficients, etc) is countable. But a set consisting of infinitely many "infinitely sized" objects may fail to be countable.

Rob
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The problem with trying to apply diagonalisation to the natural numbers is this:

Suppose we have a list of all natural numbers $a_1, a_2, a_3, \ldots$, and we claim to have constructed a number $N \in \mathbb{N}$ that isn't on the list by making sure that the $k$th digit of $N$ is different to the $k$th digit of $a_k$.

Since $N$ is a natural number, it's finite, and that means that it can be written in $M$ digits for some number $M$, with every "bigger" digit being fixed at zero. That means that when $k > M$, since the $k$th digit of $N$ is zero, the $k$th digit of $a_k$ must be non-zero by the construction of $N$.

But that's a problem, because there are $10^M$ numbers with fewer than $M$ digits, and $10^M > M$, meaning that there must be a number $a_k$ such that $k > M$ but $a_k$ has fewer than $M$ digits, which means that $a_k$ matches $N$ in the $k$th digit.

That contradicts our claim that we constructed $N$ to not match any digit on the diagonal, which means that either (a) $N$ is actually on the list, or (b) the list doesn't actually contain all of the natural numbers, either way we haven't made the natural numbers uncountable.

We're fine doing this with the real numbers because a finite real number can have infinitely many non-zero digits in its decimal expansion, something that doesn't work when you're looking at digits to the left of the decimal point.

ConMan
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  • Well, I think that's exactly what I'm trying to point out. The way we construct a new number of M digits only guarantees that this new number does not equal to other M numbers in the list. But it can still be equal to some other number in the list. Same applies to reals, actually. No matter how far we go with amount of digits, we are still comparing a constructed number with a subset of a given list, but not with the whole list. – user129516 Nov 04 '22 at 10:42
  • Which other number in the list is it equal to? – ConMan Nov 06 '22 at 22:36
  • The answer would be "maybe some". Meaning, we are neither guaranteed such number is in the list, nor the opposite. We just constructed a number which is not equal to part of the list. In other words, it does not contradict with initial claim that we have a full list. – user129516 Nov 07 '22 at 09:10
  • What part of the list? If it's not on the list, then the list is missing a number. If it's on the list, then you didn't construct it right. – ConMan Nov 07 '22 at 10:17
  • "What part of the list?" - a finit part of the list. The nature of constructing a number guarantees that, given any finite sub-set S of our original infinite set T (either countable or not), we can always construct a number which is still in T, but not in S. Which is kinda obvious. I would like to post another question for this, actually, since the initial topic is already answered, but diagonal argument still seems to be not a proof to me. Will post a link here. – user129516 Nov 07 '22 at 10:52
  • Described my considerations in repsponse to a similar question: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/4571154/1115348 – user129516 Nov 07 '22 at 13:29
  • Which got deleted, because that wasn't the place for it. From the looks of it, you should probably also brush up on your understanding of induction, because that's the standard way we take a statement that's true for arbitrary finite sets and extend that to being true for an infinite set. – ConMan Nov 07 '22 at 22:29
  • Yeah, thanks. I have now totally clarified the topic for myself in a separate question: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4571324/why-does-cantors-diagonal-argument-prove-uncountability (as mods suggested, I should've created a separate question). Either for real and natural numbers. – user129516 Nov 07 '22 at 23:53