Fermat's Little Theorem tells you that $x^{11}\equiv x\pmod{11}$, and that if $x$ is not congruent to $0$ modulo $11$, then $x^{10}\equiv 1\pmod{11}$. Since $x=0$ is certainly not a solution, we may restrict our attention to nonzero $x$; so $x^{12} = x^{10}x^2 \equiv x^2\pmod{11}$, and $x^{10}\equiv 1 \pmod{11}$.
Then this becomes $x^2-1\equiv 2\pmod{11}$, or $x^2\equiv 3\pmod{11}$. There are either two or no solutions, and since $0$ is not an option, the answer is B.
The fact that $x^{12}-x^{10}\equiv x^{10}(x^2-1)\pmod{11}$ is simply because $11$ divides $(x^{12}-x^{10}) - x^{10}(x^2-1)$, no matter what (integer) $x$ is.
Added. I don't understand your added question. $a$ is a solution to $x^{10}(x^2-1)\equiv 2\pmod{11}$ if and only if it is a solution to $x^{12}-x^{10}\equiv 2 \pmod{11}$, simply because
$$x^{12}-x^{10} = x^{10}(x^2-1)$$
for any integer (for any complex number, even!). Things that are equal remain equal modulo any equivalence relation (such as congruences), because equivalence relations are always reflexive.
Apropos of Nothing. You can determine if there are solutions or not (if you didn't have the answers in front of you) either by simply testing the numbers modulo $11$, or by using quadratic reciprocity. Both $3$ and $11$ are congruent to $3$ modulo $4$; since $11\equiv 2\pmod{3}$ is not a square modulo $3$, then $3$ is a square modulo $11$.