The original question:
Assume I have a real function $f(t)$ with Fourier transform of $\hat{f}(w)$.
Can one say anything about the inverse Fourier transform of $\frac{1}{1\pm\hat{f}(w)}$?
An answer (edit: the answer was deleted, and is now a comment on the original question):
In summary, if the function $\frac{1}{1\pm\hat{f}(w)}$ belongs to the Schwartz class, then its inverse Fourier transform exists and vise versa. See here.
To quote Ron Gordon's question, under what conditions is $\frac{1}{1\pm\hat{f}(w)}$ Schwartz?