0

In a proper infinite-dimensional subspace of an infinite-dimensional space, are all points boundary points? (Assume we are working with a normed Banach space).

So this is intuitively true for finite-dimensional space like $R^3$ where all planes and lines do not contain any open sets, so in fact, every point is also a boundary point. But is this true in the infinite-dimensional case where the subspace is also infinite-dimensional?

Bill
  • 4,417

0 Answers0