Let's consider the formula of the inner product between two continuous functions: $$<f,g> = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f(t) \cdot g(t) \ dt$$
The inner product is intuitively defined to give some real number that measures the degree of similarity between two functions. I understand that, and I arrive to find a meaning for some mathematical formulas involving integrals.
Let's now consider the formula of the convolution between two methods: $$(f \star g)(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f(t) \cdot g(x-t) \ dt$$ Based on the previous intuitive interpretation of the inner product of two functions, can we arrive at another intuitive interpretation for the convolution formula?
From the inner product point of view, I can interpret a special case of convolution and relate it to the inner product:
If we consider that $x=0$, we will have: $(f \star g)(0)= \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f(t) \cdot g(-t) \ dt$.
At this point, we can say the convolution with $x = 0$ is the inner product and thus the degree of similarity between a function and the mirror image of the other.
If we consider again that $f$ or $g$ is an even function(take $g$ in this example):
$$g(t)=g(-t) \implies (f \star g) = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f(t) \cdot g(t) \ dt = <f, g>$$
So, in the case where one of the functions is even and by imposing $x=0$, we found that the convolution is a generalization of the inner product, what about the other functions?
If we had a formula like this: $\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f(t) \cdot g(t-x) \ dt$, I can persuade my self that it measures the similarity with some shifting parameter $x$ introduced(some kind of causality). However, in the original convolution formula, the sign of $t$ is inversed(what does this sign inversing mean?).
My final question is: what is the intuition behind convolution? what is its relation with the inner product?
I would appreciate it if you include the examples I gave above and correct me if I am wrong.