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Here is the question I want a concrete example of it so that I can feel that the given set is really a limit:

Show that the set $(5.16)$ in Example 5.1.22 really is a limit of $D.$

Here is Example 5.1.22:

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Could someone help me please by giving me a concrete example?

Emptymind
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  • The $p$-adic integers – FShrike Oct 19 '22 at 13:26
  • @FShrike I just want to understand (in detail) how these integers really satisfy the assumptions of the given set and How this leads to they really become limits – Emptymind Oct 19 '22 at 13:28
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    But I don’t understand what you don’t understand. What is the issue with Leinster’s construction? – FShrike Oct 19 '22 at 13:29
  • I do not understand how the given set satisfy the conditions of a limit and hence it become a limit ..... so I want to see a concrete example that satisfies the conditions of the given set first and then see how this example is really a limit @FShrike that is what I am saying – Emptymind Oct 19 '22 at 13:33
  • @FShrike I have no issue with Leinsters' construction of the definition of the limit .... I understood it – Emptymind Oct 19 '22 at 13:34
  • Since you want examples of limits in Set, here are some. Also, I do not have acces to the Exercise 5.1.37 of your quote, but it should help you. – Anne Bauval Oct 19 '22 at 13:48
  • I want examples of limits in the form of the Set given in the question @AnneBauval – Emptymind Oct 19 '22 at 13:52
  • @AnneBauval I stated the exercise with its details in my question I think. – Emptymind Oct 19 '22 at 13:53
  • 1/2 yes, and there are plenty of such examples in the link I gave. 2/2 You didn't state the details of the (apparently more relevant for your understanding) exercise 5.1.37. – Anne Bauval Oct 19 '22 at 14:07

2 Answers2

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You can take $\mathbf{I}$ to be "$\mathbf{\cdot} ~~~ \mathbf{\cdot}$", and define the diagram to be $D: \mathbf{I} \to \mathbf{Set}$ be $\{a, b\}$, $\{c, d\}$. (Just two set/object without map/morphism). Then according to the construction in (5.16), it's:

$$ \{(x, y)| x \in \{a, b\}, y \in \{c, d\}\text{ such that no more condition are need since no morphisms in } \mathbf{I}\} $$

Try to change $\mathbf{I}$ to be $\cdot \rightarrow \cdot$ may help too.

Here I skipped the argument for 5.16 and the reality check for it being a limit.

onRiv
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$\newcommand{\set}{\mathsf{Set}}$It's unclear what you want. I provide here an example of a non-trivial limit and a strong hint as to how to prove it is a limit. As there is only one arrow between any two objects in the diagram, I think this is simple enough to be understood as a first example whilst still being non-trivial.

The $p$-adic integers are a great example. I enjoyed reading this classic MSE post on the matter. I know little number theory, so I can't tell you why the (analytic?) number theorists get excited about $p$-adic number systems but they're a solid introductory example of a non-trivial limit system.

In the category $\set$ (you could consider the category of groups or rings too) define the object $\Bbb Z_n$, for $n\in\Bbb N$, as the ring of integers modulo $n$. Pick a prime $p$ and "construct" the following diagram:

$$\large\cdots\twoheadrightarrow\Bbb Z_{p^{k+1}}\overset{\pi_k}{\twoheadrightarrow}\Bbb Z_{p^k}\overset{\pi_{k-1}}{\twoheadrightarrow}\Bbb Z_{p^{k-1}}{\twoheadrightarrow}\cdots\twoheadrightarrow\Bbb Z_{p^2}\overset{\pi_1}{\twoheadrightarrow}\Bbb Z_p$$

Where the $\pi_k:\Bbb Z_{p^{k+1}}\twoheadrightarrow\Bbb Z_{p^k}$ are the surjective projections that assign to every $n$ modulo $p^{k+1}$ the element $n\mod p^k$. For instance, with $p=5$ and $k=2$, the integer $78$ modulo $5^3=125$ is projected to $3\equiv78$ modulo $5^2$. I've avoided equivalence class notation because I think it would be confusing here.

Why does it have to be prime? It doesn't, for the purpose of building a limit system, but the use of a prime allows the $p$-adic integers to enjoy special properties - see the use of Hensel's Lemma in the linked post.

The limit object is the $p$-adic integers. They're defined to have the elements: $$\{(n_1,n_2,\cdots):n_k\in\Bbb Z,\,n_{k+1}\equiv n_k\bmod p^k\,\forall k\in\Bbb N\}$$Notice that this is exactly Leinster's limit construction (I omit the condition $n_{k+m}\equiv n_k\mod p^k$ for all $k,m$ - that is, $(Du)x_i=x_j$ for all $u:i\to j$ - since this reduces to the single-step condition $n_{k+1}\equiv n_k$).

Why is it a limit? If $R\in\set$ has some family of functions $\varphi_k:R\to\Bbb Z_{p^k}$ for which $\pi_k\circ\varphi_{k+1}=\varphi_k$ for all $k$, then ... you can continue the proof. My hint: we know $\varphi_{k+1}(r)=\varphi_k(r)\bmod p^k$ for all $k$ and $r\in R$. How can we build a $p$-adic integer from this (for every $r$)?

FShrike
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  • I agree the OP's demand is still very unclear, but his misunderstanding seems much more basic and his question simply deals with limits in the category of sets. – Anne Bauval Oct 20 '22 at 04:51
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    @AnneBauval I’ve changed it to a set limit. But the constructions and details are exactly the same – FShrike Oct 20 '22 at 05:47