I am just beginning to study algebraic geometry and I want to ask how can we show that (given a algebraically closed field), the zero set of a multi variable polynomial cannot be the entire affine n space unless it is the zero polynomial itself . Of course this seems completely obvious , but as usual with algebraic stuff , I’m not if the proof is suppose to be trivial or difficult .
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1Do you have the algebraically closed fields are infinite? – CyclotomicField Oct 13 '22 at 13:14
2 Answers
This can be done without the Nullstellensatz, more or less from first principles. I'll give two proofs. The proofs require only that the underlying field $k$ is infinite; it's not necessary to assume that it's algebraically closed.
Proof 1, finite differences: This one only works in characteristic zero. Suppose $f(x_1, \dots x_n)$ is a polynomial vanishing on $k^n$, $k$ an infinite field. Then the same is true for the finite difference
$$\Delta_{x_i} f = f(x_1, \dots x_i + 1, \dots x_n) - f(x_1, \dots x_i, \dots x_n)$$
in any of the variables $x_i$. But taking the finite difference in $x_i$ has the effect of reducing by exactly $1$ the degree of any monomial in which $x_i$ appears (this is false in positive characteristic since, for example, $\Delta_x x^p = 1$, so here is where we need to assume characteristic zero). By repeatedly taking finite differences we can remove every monomial in $f$ except the leading one (with respect to any monomial order, it doesn't matter which), which we can reduce to a constant. Since this constant polynomial inherits from $f$ the property that it vanishes on $k^n$, it must be identically zero. But this is only possible if $f$ had no leading term, meaning it is identically zero. $\Box$
(This argument doesn't really use that we're working over a field; we only need to be working over a commutative ring in which the elements of $\mathbb{Z}$ are not zero divisors, so e.g. this argument applies to $\mathbb{Z}$.)
Proof 2, induction on the number of variables: This argument will prove the following stronger result which Sassatelli Giulio gives in the comments: if $f(x_1, \dots x_n)$ vanishes on a set of the form $S_1 \times \dots \times S_n$ where each $S_i$ is infinite, then $f$ is identically zero. This is maybe the "standard" argument.
The proof is by induction on $n$. This is clear when $n = 1$. If $f(x_1, \dots x_n)$ is a polynomial in $n$ variables vanishing on $S_1 \times S_n$, then by hypothesis, if we select $r_i \in S_i$ then $f(x_1, r_2, \dots r_n)$ is a polynomial in $k[x_1]$ which vanishes on $S_1$ and hence (by the $n = 1$ case) which is identically zero. As a polynomial in $x_1$ with coefficients in $k[x_2, \dots x_n]$ (or if you prefer, in $k(x_2, \dots x_n)$) it follows that every coefficient in $k[x_2, \dots x_n]$ vanishes on $S_2 \times \dots \times S_n$. By the inductive hypothesis every coefficient vanishes identically, so $f$ vanishes identically. $\Box$
(With a little effort one can write down explicit bounds on the size that each $S_i$ needs to be for this argument to work - they don't actually need to be infinite, they just need to be sufficiently large - and this gives what is called the combinatorial Nullstellensatz.)

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thank you. So I actually just learned about the nullstellensatz today, but seeing proofs that doesn't use it is very illuminating especially proof 2 you have given . – Bill Oct 13 '22 at 18:18
Edited to provide more detail:
Suppose a polynomial $f$ has $\mathbb{A}^n$ as its zero set. Since we're assuming we're working over an algebraically closed field, we can appeal to the Nullstellensatz. More specifically, we can use the fact (which is a direct consequence of the Nullstellensatz) that for $\frak a$ an ideal of $k[x, y]$, $I(Z(\frak a)) = \sqrt{\frak a}$, where $\sqrt{\frak a}$ denotes the radical of $\frak a$.
Using this result, together with our assumption that $Z((f)) = \mathbb{A}^n$, we have that $\sqrt{(f)} = I(Z((f))) = I(\mathbb{A}^n) = I(Z(0)) = \sqrt{(0)}.$ Since $k[x, y]$ is an integral domain, $(0)$ is prime, hence $\sqrt{(0)} = 0$. Since an ideal is always contained in its radical, it follows that $(f) = 0$. Again, since $k[x, y]$ is an integral domain, we must have $f = 0$.

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Okay, happy to mention explicitly that I'm using the Nullstellensatz. But using the Nullstellensatz together with the assumption that $Z((f)) = \mathbb{A}^n$ (and if we want to be very explicit, the fact that $k[x, y]$ is an integral domain), we have $\sqrt{(f)} = I(Z((f))) = I(\mathbb{A}^n) = I(Z(0)) = \sqrt{0} = 0$. Any ideal is contained in its radical, so $(f) = 0$. If $f \neq 0$, then $(f) \neq 0$, so $f = 0$. I'm not seeing a circularity here. – user1090793 Oct 13 '22 at 16:46
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Ah, I see, you use the Nullstellensatz a second time but applied to $I(Z(0))$. I had in mind only the Nullstellensatz applied to $I(Z(f))$. That's a nice argument but unfortunately I can't undo my downvote anymore. – Qiaochu Yuan Oct 13 '22 at 16:51
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No problem, it's always good to get a reminder that more detail in answers is usually a good thing. Hartshorne might be rubbing off on me too much : ) – user1090793 Oct 13 '22 at 16:52
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2Well, just think about the questioner's state of mind: does the questioner seem like the sort of person who is likely to understand an argument which implicitly uses the Nullstellensatz twice without saying so? If so, they probably wouldn't be asking this question! – Qiaochu Yuan Oct 13 '22 at 17:03