Prove that if $A$ is a countable set, then the Cartesian product $A \times A$ is also countable.
First suppose that A is countable.
If A is finite, then since $ A \neq \emptyset $ there exists an integer $n$ and a bijection $f : A → \Bbb N$.
In particular, f is a one-to-one mapping of $A$ into $ \Bbb N$. So we have found our $f$, if A is finite.
If A is infinite, then $A$ is countably infinite. Therefore, there is a bijection $f : A → \Bbb N$. Thus, in both cases, we have a one-to-one mapping $f : A → \Bbb N$. Now suppose that we have a one-to-one mapping $f$ of $A$ into $ \Bbb N$. Then $f$ maps $A$ onto its range. Therefore $A ≈ran( f)$. But $ran(f)$ is a subset of $A$. So $A$ is countable, as every subset of a countable set is countable.
We show that $ A \times A $ is countable by defining a function $ g: A \times A → A $ explicitly.
So, let $ g(a,b) = 2^{g(a)} 3^{g(b)} $ for all $ (a, b) ∈ A × A $.
This is clearly a well- defined function and the function is not onto, since a number like 7 is not in the range. So we will not try to show that f is a bijection between $ A \times A $ and $A$.
Since the prime factorization of a natural number is unique, the function is one-to-one. Thus we have a one-to-one mapping $ f : A × A → A $.
We have shown that $ A × A$ is equivalent to $A$, thus $ A \times A$ is also countable.