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I am trying to evaluate the integral. $$\int_0^\infty \frac{x^{p-1}}{1+x^{2}} \, dx$$ where $0<p<2$ and $p \neq 1$, the answer says the integral should be $\frac{2}{\pi}\csc (\frac{\pi p}{2})$

I got an answer up to $\frac{\pi ((i)^{p-1}+{-i}^{p-1})}{1-exp(2\pi i (p-1))}$, not sure how to proceed from this or if this is even right.

J.G.
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The game
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  • By $-i^{p-1}$ did you mean $(-i)^{p-1}$? You should probably edit your calculation into the question. But the most important lesson to be learned from this particular problem is you have to worry about two poles of phase unless you use $y=x^2$, in which case it's only one. – J.G. Sep 26 '22 at 13:55
  • See the section after Equation $(2)$ in THIS ANSWER. – Mark Viola Sep 26 '22 at 14:49
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    You can follow https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zgLNBdtQT5Q but do note his argument part is wrong(to do it correctly just extract the argument using logarithm and make sure you define it clearly when doing it). I can write an answer later if you want a full solution. Otherwise good luck :) – Captain Chicky Sep 26 '22 at 15:09
  • if it will possible to help me through steps, I really appreciate it, I tried to solve it, but I am stuck in simplifying the expression – The game Sep 26 '22 at 17:49
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    @MarkViola Hm your answer seems to have an error. If you plug your result into the final expression you get something that results in secant, not cosecant. Perhaps there's something I'm missing? On the other hand, imo it would be easier to solve this by a pizza slice contour or beta functions but since the OP requested a keyhole contour, this seems more nuanced that I had initially expected. – Captain Chicky Sep 27 '22 at 13:40
  • I think maybe you are right, maybe there’s an issue with the final answer. Since that’s what my friends also got – The game Sep 27 '22 at 13:55
  • @CaptainChicky My answer does not have an error. See the full solution. – Mark Viola Sep 27 '22 at 15:08
  • Thanks gonna check it – The game Sep 27 '22 at 15:14
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    @CaptainChicky First, note that $\cos((p-1)\pi/2)=\sin(p\pi/2)$. So, perhaps that is one thing you were missing. Second, how do you propose a "pizza slice" contour would facilitate analysis? Poles are on the imaginary axis. Finally, using Beta and Gamma functions is one real analysis way that works well. In fact, see THIS ANSWER to THIS QUESTION. – Mark Viola Sep 27 '22 at 15:28
  • @MarkViola Ah that makes sense. Obvious identity but it got obscured so rip me. As for the pizza slice, for this case it would be a semicircular contour with an PV indent at the centre. You can easily generalize this integral through symmetry with $$\int_0^\infty\frac{x^n}{1+x^m}$$ with pizza slice contours that contain only 1 pole inside. It's a fun exercise if you want to give it a try. (& ye, beta+euler reflection formula is really elegant :P) Also ig since i have a half written thing already I'll just post the answer later since it feels wasteful to delete it. – Captain Chicky Sep 27 '22 at 16:10
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    @CaptainChicky I've added a section in which I used a semi-circular contour. It does not seem to be more efficient to use this contour than to use the keyhole contour. – Mark Viola Sep 27 '22 at 16:42
  • I would say this is a duplicate of https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/110457/closed-form-for-int-0-infty-fracxn1-xmdx/ but the answers here are unique enough that it should be fine :P – Max0815 Sep 28 '22 at 02:06

2 Answers2

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By cutting the plane along the positive real axis, the pole at $z=i=e^{i\pi/2}$ while the pole at $z=-i=e^{i3\pi/2}$.

Then, we have $i^{p-1}=e^{i(p-1)\pi/2}$ and $(-i)^{p-1}=e^{i3(p-1)\pi/2}$.

Therefore, $2\pi i$ times the sum of the residues is

$$2\pi i\left(\frac{e^{i(p-1)\pi/2}}{2i}+\frac{e^{i3(p-1)\pi/2}}{-2i}\right)=-2\pi i e^{i(p-1)\pi}\sin(\pi(p-1)/2)$$

Finally, we have

$$\begin{align} \int_{0}^\infty\frac{x^{p-1}}{1+x^2}\,dx&=\frac{-2\pi i e^{i(p-1)\pi \sin((p-1)\pi/2)}}{1-e^{i2\pi(p-1)}}\\\\&=\frac{-2\pi i e^{i(p-1)\pi \sin((p-1)\pi/2)}}{-e^{i(p-1)\pi}(e^{i(p-1)\pi}-e^{-i(p-1)\pi})}\\\\ &=\pi\frac{\sin((p-1)\pi/2)}{\sin((p-1)\pi)}\\\\ &=\frac\pi{2\cos((p-1)\pi/2)}\\\\ &=\frac{\pi}{2\sin(p\pi/2)}\\\\ &= \frac\pi 2 \csc(p/2) \end{align}$$


As @CaptainChicky mentioned in a comment, we could have chosen to evaluate the integral of interest using a semi-circular contour. Proceeding, note that with the branch cut chosen as before, we have

$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{x^{p-1}}{1+x^2}\,dx =(1+e^{i(p-1)\pi})\int_0^\infty \frac{x^{p-1}}{1+x^2}\,dx \tag1$$

Now let $C_R$ be the closed contour in the complex plane comrised of $(i)$ the real-line segment $[-R,R]$ and $(ii)$ the semi-circle $|z|=R$, $0\le \arg(z)\le \pi$. Then, we have for $R>1$

$$\begin{align} \oint_{C_R}\frac{z^{p-1}}{1+z^2}\,dz&=\int_{-R}^R \frac{x^{p-1}}{1+x^2}\,dx +\int_\pi^0 \frac{(Re^{i\phi})^{p-1}}{1+(Re^{i\phi})^2}\,iRe^{i\phi}\,d\phi\\\\ &=2\pi i \text{Res}\left(\frac{z^{p-1}}{1+z^2}\,dz,z=i\right)\\\\ &= \pi e^{i(p-1)\pi/2 }\tag2 \end{align}$$

Letting $R\to\infty$ and using $(1)$ and $(2)$ yields

$$\int_0^\infty \frac{x^{p-1}}{1+x^2}\,dx=\pi \frac{e^{i(p-1)\pi/2 }}{1+e^{i(p-1)\pi}}=\frac\pi2\csc(p\pi/2)$$

as expected!

Mark Viola
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Alright, as I've mentioned in the comments, I've already had a half typed answer so it feels wasteful to just delete it. I'll add a generalization to the integral in question as well as a few insights to make the answer more meaningful.

(And i have to thank @Mark Viola for pointing out the phase shift formula for the trig function lol I was wondering why my result wasn't in the correct format )

Let $n=p-1$. $$f(z)=\frac{z^n}{z^2+1}$$ Simple poles from denominator at $x=\pm i$, and since $n\neq\mathbb{Z}$ we have a branch point at $0$ and complex infinity as well as a branch cut connecting them. We'll define $$0\le\arg(z)<2\pi$$ and have our branch cut be on the positive real axis.

Define a contour as follows

enter image description here

$$\oint_\mathcal{C}f(z)\text{ d}z=\int_T+\int_B+\int_\psi+\int_\Gamma f(z)\text{ d}z=2\pi i\sum\text{Residue at }\pm i$$

Decay rate of function has $\int_\Gamma\to 0$. You can prove this rigorously as an exercise by first paramterizing it(choose some dummy angle say $\delta$ as part of your bounds since the outer contour does not circle the full $2\pi$) and then using typical inequalities(CS, ML, triangle etc). For example, here are some $$\left|\int f(z)\right|\le\int|f(z)|,\quad\int\frac{1}{|a-b|}\le\int\frac{1}{||a|-|b||}\text{, and so on}$$ once you get the limit at the end just note that our restrictions will guarentee it going to $0$.

Similar situation for the branch point integral, $\int_\psi\to 0$. Prove this via parametrization the same way as before with a dummy angle and use inequalities/take limit to show it goes to $0$. I recommend trying these are exercises but if you want just tell me and I'll type out the process.

Paths about $T$ and $B$ can be parameterized as follows.

$$T: z=x+i\epsilon,\quad dz=dx,\quad \epsilon\le z\le R$$ $$B: z=x-i\epsilon,\quad dz=dx,\quad R\le z\le\epsilon$$

\begin{align*} \lim_{\epsilon\to0,R\to\infty}\int_T&=\int^\infty_0\lim_{\epsilon\to0} \frac{(x+i\epsilon)^n}{(x+i\epsilon)^2+1}\\ \end{align*}

Justify the limit swap using DCT. Let a function $\int^R_0f(z)$ and induce a limit inside first. Bound the integrand by a constant since $0\le x<R$ and use DCT. Then take the $R$ limit. Same thing for the integral about $B$.

Expand out the numerator and denominator with $e^{\ln}$ and rewrite the log into the complex logarithm definition. Split the terms and factor out the argument. In general, we can see that $$\lim_{\epsilon\to0}\int_{\text{path}}f(z)\text{ d}z=\exp\left( i\arg(f(z)\text{ in specified direction}) \right)\int_{\text{path}}\lim_{\epsilon\to0}|f(z)|\text{ d}z$$

Our function is always positive, so we ignore the absolute value in this case.

$T$ path has an argument of $0$ so $\int_T$ is just our integral we seek.

$B$ path has argument $2\pi$, so $\int_B$ is $-e^{2\pi i n}$ times our integral($n$ comes from numerator power)

The residues can be found by just using the derivative definition, which gives(be careful of your argument $i=e^{\pi i/2}$, $-i=e^{3\pi i/2}$) $$2\pi i\sum\text{Residue at }\pm i=2\pi i\left(\frac{i^n}{2i}+\frac{(-i)^n}{-2i}\right)=2\pi i\left(\frac{e^{i\pi n/2}}{2i}+\frac{e^{3i\pi n/2}}{-2i}\right)=-2\pi ie^{i\pi n}\left(\frac{e^{i\pi n/2}-e^{-i\pi n/2}}{2i}\right)=-2\pi ie^{i\pi n}\sin\left(\frac{n\pi}2\right)$$

Hence we have $$I(1-e^{2\pi i n})=-2\pi ie^{i\pi n}\sin\left(\frac{n\pi}2\right)$$ $$\implies I=\color{blue}{-2}\pi \color{blue}{i}\color{red}{e^{i\pi n}}\sin\left(\frac{n\pi}2\right)\cdot\frac{\color{blue}{1}}{\color{red}{e^{\pi i n}}\color{blue}{\left(e^{-\pi i n}-e^{\pi i n}\right)}}=\pi\cdot\sin\left(\frac{p\pi}2-\frac{\pi}2\right)\cdot\color{blue}{\csc(p\pi-\pi)}$$ $$\implies \pi\cdot\color{red}{-\cos\left(\frac{p\pi}2\right)}\cdot\frac{\color{red}{-}1}{2\sin\left(\frac{p\pi}2\right)\color{red}{\cos\left(\frac{p\pi}2\right)}}=\frac{2}{\pi}\csc\left(\frac{\pi p}{2}\right)$$


Now to make this more useful, consider the more general integral $n,\,m\in\mathbb{R}$, $n\ge0$ and $n+1<m$ $$I=\int_0^\infty {\frac{{{x^n}}}{{1 + {x^m}}}\text{ d}x }$$

Let $f(z)$ be the integrand. If $n,\,m\notin\mathbb{Z}$, the function has a branch cut from the origin out to complex infinity. Set this on the negative real axis. The poles of our function lie at all the places where $1+z^m=0$, which is along the unit circle. For an integer power $m$, we will get the $m$ roots of unity reflected across the imaginary axis as our poles.

For each noninteger $m$, the number of poles will be the nearest even integer. Note the fact that the only time we will get a pole on the negative real axis is when $m$ is an odd integer, but this also means there is no branch cut.

We'll use a pizza slice contour here as follows

enter image description here

Here, $\theta=\frac{2\pi}m$, and the contour path $U$ ends along the ray $e^{\frac{2\pi i}{m}}$

We have $$\oint_{\mathcal{C}}f(z)\text{ d}z=\int_B+\int_{\Gamma}+\int_U+\int_{\gamma}f(z)\text{ d}z=2\pi i\mathop{\mathrm{Res}}_{z = \exp\left(\frac{\pi i}m\right)}f(z)$$

Residue first this time. $$\mathop{\mathrm{Res}}_{z = \exp\left(\frac{\pi i}m\right)}\frac{z^n}{z^m+1}=\frac{\exp\left(\frac{\pi i}m\right)^n}{\dfrac{\text{d}}{\text{d}z}\left[z^m+1\right]\Big|_{z=\exp\left(\frac{\pi i}m\right)}}=\frac{\exp\left(\frac{\pi in}m\right)}{-m\exp\left(-\frac{\pi i}m\right)}=\frac{\exp\left(\frac{\pi i}m(n+1)\right)}{-m}$$

Before we move on, I'd like to note a small problem when we have $1<m<2$: the path $U$ may actually lie on a pole or enclose another pole and $\Gamma,\,\gamma$ crosses the branch cut. I'll deal with this at the end.

If we parameterize our paths we get \begin{alignat*}{5} B&:\text{ }z=x,\qquad &\text{d}z&=\text{d}x,\qquad &x&\in[\,\epsilon, R\,]\\ \Gamma &:\text{ }z=Re^{i\theta},\qquad &\text{d}z&=iRe^{i\theta}\text{ d}\theta,\qquad &\theta&\in\left[0, \frac{2\pi}{m}\right]\\ U&:\text{ }z=re^{\frac{2\pi i}m},\qquad &\text{d}z&=e^{\frac{2\pi i}m}\text{d}r,\qquad &r&\in[\,R, \epsilon\,]\\ \gamma &:\text{ }z=\epsilon e^{i\theta},\qquad &\text{d}z&=i\epsilon e^{i\theta}\text{ d}\theta,\qquad &\theta&\in\left[\frac{2\pi}{m},0\right] \end{alignat*}

With the integrals along the two rays being really nice. $$\lim_{R\to+\infty,\,\epsilon\to+0}\int_Bf(z)\text{ d}z=\lim_{R\to+\infty,\,\epsilon\to+0}\int^{R}_{\epsilon}\frac{x^n\text{ d}x}{1+x^m}=I$$ and $$\lim_{R\to+\infty,\,\epsilon\to+0}\int_Uf(z)\text{ d}z=\lim_{R\to+\infty,\,\epsilon\to+0}\int^{\epsilon}_R\frac{r^ne^{\frac{2\pi i n}{m}}}{1+r^m\color{red}{e^{\frac{2\pi i m}{m}}}}\cdot e^{\frac{2\pi i}m}\text{ d}r=-e^{\frac{2\pi i}m(n+1)}I$$

Both arcs go to $0$, but I will show this i guess, so we have \begin{align} \left|\int_{\Gamma}f(z)\text{ d}z\right|&\le\int^{\frac{2\pi}m}_0\frac{\left|R^n\right|\color{red}{\left|e^{in\theta}\right|}}{\left|\displaystyle R^m e^{im\theta}+1 \right|}\cdot\color{red}{|i|}|R|\color{red}{\left|e^{i\theta}\right|}\text{ d}\theta\\ &\le\int^{\frac{2\pi}m}_0\frac{R^{n+1}}{\left|\left|\displaystyle R^m\right|\color{red}{\left|e^{im\theta}\right|}-|-1|\right|}\text{ d}\theta\\ &\le\int^{\frac{2\pi}m}_0\frac{R^{n+1}\text{ d}\theta}{\displaystyle R^m-1}=\frac{2\pi}{m}\cdot\frac{R^{n+1}}{\displaystyle R^m-1} \end{align} and the limit $$\frac{2\pi}{m}\lim_{R\to+\infty}\frac{R^{n+1}}{\displaystyle R^m-1}=0$$ only happens if $m>0$, $m>n+1$, and $n>-1$, which is satisfied since we have set the following restrictions where we have $m>2$, $m>n+1$, and $n\ge0$.

next, \begin{align} \left|\int_{\gamma}f(z)\text{ d}z\right|&\le\int_{\frac{2\pi}m}^0\frac{\left|\epsilon^n\right|\color{red}{\left|e^{in\theta}\right|}}{\left|\displaystyle \epsilon^m e^{im\theta}+1 \right|}\cdot\color{red}{|i|}|\epsilon|\color{red}{\left|e^{i\theta}\right|}\text{ d}\theta\\ &\le\int_{\frac{2\pi}m}^0\frac{\epsilon^{n+1}}{\left|\left|\displaystyle \epsilon^m\right|\color{red}{\left|e^{im\theta}\right|}-|-1|\right|}\text{ d}\theta\\ &\le\int_{\frac{2\pi}m}^0\frac{\epsilon^{n+1}\text{ d}\theta}{\displaystyle \epsilon^m-1}=-\frac{2\pi}{m}\cdot\frac{\epsilon^{n+1}}{\displaystyle \epsilon^m-1} \end{align} the limit will become $$-\frac{2\pi}{m}\lim_{\epsilon\to+0}\frac{\epsilon^{n+1}}{\displaystyle \epsilon^m-1}=0$$ with laxer restrictions, with us needing only $m>0$ and $n>-1$, which are both satisfied.

Hence, we have $$\oint_{\mathcal{C}}f(z)\text{ d}z=\int_B+\int_U f(z)\text{ d}z=I-e^{\frac{2\pi i}{m}(n+1)}I=2\pi i\cdot\frac{-1}{m}e^{\frac{\pi i}{m}(n+1)}$$ So we have $$I=\frac{-\frac{2\pi i}{m}\exp\left(\frac{\pi i}{m}(n+1)\right)}{1-\exp\left(\frac{2\pi i}{m}(n+1)\right)}=\frac{\pi}{m}\cdot\frac{2i}{e^{\frac{\pi i}m(n+1)}-e^{-\frac{\pi i}m(n+1)}}=\frac{\pi}{m}\csc\left(\frac{\pi(n+1)}{m}\right),\qquad m>2,\,m>n+1,\,n\ge0$$

Okay, now let's revisit the discrepancy at the beginning and attempt to get rid of the $m>2$ restriction. The region of integration has $z = re^{i \theta}$ where $\epsilon \leq r \leq R$, $0 \leq \theta \leq \frac{2\pi}{m}$. So to get a function mostly continuous in the region, we can take the branch cut along the ray bisecting the remaining angle between $\frac{2\pi}{m}$ and $2\pi$. With $r,\, \theta \in \mathbb{R}$ and $r \geq 0$, this branch is given by $$ (r e^{i\theta})^m = r^m \exp\left(i \theta m - 2im\pi \left\lfloor \frac{\theta}{2\pi} + \frac{m-1}{2m} \right\rfloor\right) $$ This new definition utilizes the number of complete counterclockwise rotations relative to the chosen branch cut in the direction of $-e^{\frac{i \pi}m}$. Using this definition of $z^m$, the integrand $f(z) = \frac{z^n}{1+z^m}$ has exactly one pole inside the region of integration, at $z=e^{\frac{i \pi}m}$.

For example, suppose $m = \frac{4}{3}$. The region has $0 \leq \theta \leq \frac{3\pi}{2}$, and $f(z)$'s only pole is at $z=e^{\frac{3i \pi}4}$. Although some branches of $z^{\frac43}$, including the principal branch, have a pole at $z = e^{\frac{-3i \pi}4}$, this new function $f$ does not, as it's defined in terms of a "$z^{\frac43}$" branch which gives $e^{\frac{-3i\pi}4} \mapsto \exp(\frac{4}{3}\cdot\frac{5i \pi}{4}) = e^{\frac{-i \pi}3}$ so there is no division by zero.

We also see that along the straight line segment edges of the path of integration where $\theta = 0$ or $\theta = \frac{2\pi}{m}$, or alternatively $B$ or $U$ respectively, the chosen branch gives $z^m = 1$, so $f(z) = \frac{z^n}{2}$, and the symmetry argument is allowed since $f(z)$ has different values on $U$ if the principal branch of $z^m$ is used with $m<2$. This justifies using our pizza slice contour for $1<m<2$. Thus, we must have it such that $$I=\frac{\pi}{m}\csc\left(\frac{\pi(n+1)}{m}\right),\qquad m>n+1,\,n\ge0$$