The answer to your first question is yes.
Do not dismiss the example referenced in the problem statement (the case where $n = 3$). Examples like the one I'll reproduce below help to build insight:
Given $\quad A=\begin{pmatrix}1 & \frac{1}{2} & \frac{1}{3} \\ \frac{1}{2} & \frac{1}{3} & \frac{1}{4} \\ \frac{1}{3} & \frac{1}{4} & \frac{1}{5}\end{pmatrix},\qquad$
$A^{-1}=\begin{pmatrix} 9 & -36 & 30 \\ -36 & 192 & -180 \\ 30 & -180 & 180 \end{pmatrix}$.
I'd suggest you explore the matrix and its inverse for $n = 4$.
What we want to show is that
$B=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & \frac{1}{2} & \ldots & \frac{1}{n} \\ \frac{1}{2} & \frac{1}{3} & \ldots & \frac{1}{n+1} \\ \ldots & \ldots & & \ldots \\ \frac{1}{n} & \frac{1}{n+1} & \ldots & \frac{1}{2n-1}\end{pmatrix}$
is invertible and $B^{-1}$ has integer entries.
Hints to get you started: The matrix $B$ is known as a Hilbert matrix and the entries of its inverse can be represented as the product of binomial coefficients.