I'm revisiting a little bit of calc but I can't remember some details. I intentionally came up with the following abomination to try and figure out what goes wrong: $$2=\underbrace{\int_{-1}^1 x+1\,dx\\}_{I_1}\overset*=\underbrace{\int_1^1\frac{\sqrt{u}+1}{2\sqrt{u}}\,du}_{I_2}=0$$ where $$x=\sqrt{u}$$ $$dx=\frac{1}{2\sqrt{u}}du$$ was used.
I learned calc form Spivak which mainly focuses on indefinite integrals and general theory (which I'm both quite comfortable with), my problem arises when it's time to calculate a definite integral. I have the following considerations:
- The indefinite integral of $I_2$, once $u$ is replaced by $x^2$, equals the indefinite integral of $I_1$.
- For every $a\geq 0$, $\displaystyle\int_0^ax+1\quad dx=\int_0^{a^2}\frac{(\sqrt{u}+1)}{(2\sqrt{u})}du=\frac{a^2}{2}+a$.
My question is the following: Why was the substitution wrong? If a substitution's correctness depends on the domain of integration, when is a substitution correct on the case of the indefinite integral?
I looking for an answer that allows me to know precisely when a substitution may not work. Something of the form: For $x=g(u)$ to be a valid substitution, $g$ must have as co-domain a superset of the whole domain of integration, etc (what about the indefinite integral?) (this sort of rules are not made explicit on Spivak's, in fact, he mentions that this sort of thing works [in the case of the indefinite integral] when $g$ is one-to-one 'for all $x$ under consideration', which I know is not the weakest condition).
x=g(t)
instead ofu=g(x)
) are required to be invertible, and this is an implicit consequence of the theorem. For reference, my full statement of the theorem. – ryang Feb 08 '23 at 16:42