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Consider the integral for $n\geq 2$ $$I(n)=\int_{0}^{1}[1-(1-x)^{n-1}]\frac{dx}{x} $$

Prove that $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{I(n)}{\log n}=1$$

In integral $I(n)$, since $\int_{0}^{1}f(x)dx= \int_0^1 f(1-x) dx$ so we get $$I(n)=\int_{0}^{1}\frac{ 1-x^{n-1} }{1-x} dx $$ So we get by using the sum of $n$ terms of a Geometric Progression $$I(n)=\int_0^1 (1+x+x^2+x^3+...+x^{n-2}) dx$$

So $$I(n)=1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{n-1}$$ So we obtain $$I(n)=\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\frac{1}{k}$$ Now we know that $$\gamma=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{k} -\log n\right)$$ So we have $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\left(I(n)+\frac{1}{n}-\log n\right)=\gamma$$ I am struggling to prove the asymptotic. Any help will be appreciated.

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    so what is exactly your question? Ineed, you have everything needed. – Math-fun Sep 13 '22 at 17:01
  • @Math-fun my question is how do we have $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{I(n)}{\log n}=1$$ How to prove this limit? –  Sep 13 '22 at 17:02
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    The integral is a representation of Harmonic series, $H_n$, which behaves as $\log n + \gamma + O(1/n)$; as you have written in your answer (apart from the O term). See also here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/306371/simple-proof-of-showing-the-harmonic-number-h-n-theta-log-n – Math-fun Sep 13 '22 at 17:08
  • @Math-fun Thanks a lot. Can you please give me a reference from a book of the above formula which you wrote? Its a humble request. –  Sep 13 '22 at 17:13
  • I don't recall a specific book, where I could tell which page / etc :-) I am sorry. ... But you will find a lot in a "never becoming irrelevant" book by Knopp: https://www.amazon.com/Theory-Application-Infinite-Dover-Mathematics/dp/0486661652 – Math-fun Sep 13 '22 at 18:17

2 Answers2

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You're most of the way there. You can write your last equation as $$ 0 = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left[I(n) +\frac{1}{n} - \ln n -\gamma\right] = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}[\ln n]\left[\frac{I(n)}{\ln n} - 1 +\frac{1}{n\ln n} - \frac{\gamma}{\ln n}\right] $$ Since the limit of the first term in brackets is $\infty$ and the limit of the product is $0$, the limit of the second term in brackets must also be $0$. Therefore we have $$ 0 = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left[\frac{I(n)}{\ln n} - 1 +\frac{1}{n\ln n} - \frac{\gamma}{\ln n}\right] = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{I(n)}{\ln n} - 1 $$ And the result follows.

eyeballfrog
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$$I_n=\int_{0}^{1} \sum_{k=1}^{n-1} (-1)^{k-1}{n-1 \choose k}x^{k-1}=\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}(-1)^{k-1} {n-1\choose k}\frac{1}{k}=\int_{0}^{1} \frac{(1-z)^{n-1}-1}{(1-z-1)}dz$$ $$=\int_{0}^{1} \frac{z^{n-1}-1}{z-1}dz=H_{n-1}$$ Next, we have $$H_{n-1} \sim \gamma+\ln n-1/n.$$ Finally, $$\lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{I_n}{\ln n}=\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\gamma+\ln n -1/n}{\ln n}=1.$$

Gary
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Z Ahmed
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