It is not clear to me in the first answer to this question in the last two lines why $P_{17}$ is abelian implies that $P_{17} \leq N_G(P_3)$ and what is the contradiction that we obtain that leads to $n_3 = 1.$
Here is the first answer there:
Hint: let's take a look at the number of groups in $Syl_{17}(G)$ and $Syl_3(G)$.
We know that $n_{17}\equiv1\text{ (mod 17)}\implies n_{17}\in \{1\not3,\not5,\not{15}\}\implies \exists!P_{17}\trianglelefteq G$.
While $n_3\equiv 1\text{ (mod 3)}\implies n_3\in\{1,\not5,\not17,85\}.$
If we now consider the action of conjugation of $G$ on its Sylow's groups we have that $$|Syl_{17}(G)|=|G:N_G(P_{17})|\implies|N_G(P_{17})|=|G|.$$ Furthermore $$\dfrac{|N_G(P_{17})|}{|C_G(P_{17})|}\bigg||\operatorname{Aut}(P_{17})|=\varphi(17)=16\implies\dfrac{3\cdot 5\cdot 17}{|C_G(P_{17})|}\big |2^4\iff|C_G(P_{17})|=|G|.$$ $P_{17}$ is abelian, so $P_{17}\le N_G(P_3)\implies17\big||N_G(P_{3})|$. We also have $\{1,85\}\ni n_3=|G:N_G(P_3)|$, so $n_3=1$. You can do something similar for $P_5$.
Could anyone help me to understand this please?