I was tring to figure out the global section on $\mathcal{O}(-1)$ and $\mathcal{O}(1)$, there is a very nice explanation given here.
Which shows since the holomorphic line bundle is determined by local non vanishing holomorphic function as frame denote it $e_i $, then any global section $s\in \Gamma(\Bbb{P}^n, \mathcal{O}(k))$ is determined under this local coordinate as $s = t_ie_i$ with the coefficient $t_i \in \mathcal{O}(U_i)$ since we know the cocyle of line bundle $\mathcal{O}(1)$ and $\mathcal{O}(-1)$, we deduced that for global section on $\mathcal{O}(1)$ (which now encoded as set of $\{U_i,t_i\}$) satisfies the equation
$$t_i=\frac{z_i}{z_j}t_j \text{ on }\ U_i\cap U_j$$
However I can't figure out a detail , why this implies $t_i = 0$, and why in the same manner on $\mathcal{O}(1)$ if $$s_i=\frac{z_j}{z_i}s_j \text{ on }\ U_i\cap U_j$$
will imply $s_i=\frac{L}{z_i}$ for some $L=a_0z_0+...+a_nz_n \in (k^{n+1})^* $
It seems not very direct?