Consider the probability space $(\Bbb [0, 1], \mathcal{B}, \mu),$ where $\mathcal{B}$ denotes the Borel sigma algebra in $[0, 1],$ and $\mu$ is the standard Lebesgue measure restricted to $[0, 1]$. Could you please provide an example (mathematically defined) of two absolutely continuous random variables $X_1, X_2 : ([0, 1], \mathcal{B}, \mu) \rightarrow \Bbb R$ that are independent and identically distributed?
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Can we freely choose the probability on $(\mathbb{R},\mathcal{B})$? – Plop Sep 01 '22 at 15:45
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What do you mean by "analytical"? Does it mean "that can be developped as a power series at every point"? – Plop Sep 01 '22 at 15:47
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@Plop yes, feel free to choose any absolutely continuous distribution (I will edit the post accordingly). By analytical I mean a clear mathematical definition (not just example like toss a coin two times) – John D Sep 01 '22 at 15:49
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The expression "independent and identically distributed" has no meaning before we put a probability measure on $\mathbb{R}$. Two maps $X_1$ and $X_2$ could be iid for some probability measure but not for another one. – Plop Sep 01 '22 at 15:53
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Moreover, you should ask $X_1$ and $X_2$ not to be almost everywhere constant. And equal... – Plop Sep 01 '22 at 15:55
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Who's $\mu$? Can we choose it? The "standard Lebesgue measure" is not a probability measure. – Plop Sep 01 '22 at 16:00
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1Already fixed the post. Thanks for helping me to fully formalize the question! – John D Sep 01 '22 at 16:05
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Moreover, it is quite contrary to the "philosophy" of measure theory and probability theory to restrict attention to the case where the universe (that is, the set on which the random variables are defined) is a topological space and assume that the random variables are continuous or more. Your question looks like asking for "pathological" examples, and I am not sure that it is what you are looking for. – Plop Sep 01 '22 at 16:05
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@Plop No topology there. Absolutely continuous random variable is understood in the sense that the generated probability measure is dominated by Lebesgue's measure, i.e, $P_X << Lebesgue$ – John D Sep 01 '22 at 16:07
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Mmmmh... Then the question is still ambiguous. An absolutely continuous map $[0,1] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is not the same as a map such that the pushforward measure has a density with respect to Lebesgue measure. – Plop Sep 01 '22 at 16:09
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Let us continue this discussion in chat. – John D Sep 01 '22 at 16:11
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According to the definition in my book it was. But this is irrelevant. What I mean is exactly what you said, that the push forward measure has a density. Should I modify the post? – John D Sep 01 '22 at 16:12
2 Answers
Let, for all $x \in [0,1]$, $X_1(x) := \sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \lfloor \frac{x}{2^{2n}} \rfloor \frac{1}{2^n}$ and $X_2(x) := \sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \lfloor \frac{x}{2^{2n-1}}\rfloor \frac{1}{2^n}$.
I leave you, as an exercise, to prove that $X_1$ and $X_2$ are indeed iid.
Hints:
For every $k \in \mathbb{N}$, and $n \in \mathbb{N}^*$, compute $X^{-1}_1([\frac{k}{2^n},\frac{k+1}{2^n}))$ and $X^{-1}_2([\frac{k}{2^n},\frac{k+1}{2^n}))$. Each of these should be a dyadic interval.
Deduce from this that $X_1$ and $X_2$ are both uniform and independent.

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Many thanks for taking the time to help me formalize the question better and for providing an answer! – John D Sep 03 '22 at 21:21
One can actually build explicitly two iid random variables $X_1$ and $X_2$ on $([0,1], \mathcal{B}, \mu)$ with any given distribution (even not absolutely continuous), noticed that it is possible to define two independent uniform variables $U_1$ and $U_2$. Indeed, if $F$ is the given cdf then we can put (for $i=1,2$): $$X_i:=G(U_i)$$ where $G(x):=\inf \left\{t \in \mathbb{R}: F(t) \leq x \right\}$. So the problem consists in finding the expression of $U_1$ and $U_2$.
The way to construct such uniform variables exists and is described in Existence of independent and identically distributed random variables.. Basically the idea is to define: $$B_k(x):= k\mbox{-th binary digit of }x$$ and then $$U_1(x):=\sum_{k=1}^\infty B_{\varphi(k)}(x) 2^{-k}$$ $$U_2(x):=\sum_{k=1}^\infty B_{\psi(k)}(x) 2^{-k}$$ where (for example) $\varphi(k)=2k$ and $\psi(k)=2k-1$ (digits in odd place and in even place "do not speak" to each other, and each of them gives a uniform random number in $[0,1]$). Note that in this way (see the linked post) we can actually define a sequence of iid uniform variables, and hence a sequence of iid variables on $[0,1]$ with any given distribution.

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Well, your answer also contains some hints so it was worth posting anyway :-) – Dark Magician Sep 01 '22 at 17:26
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thanks for the excellent answer too! I hope you understand I had to accept @Plop because he was first providing the answer. Outstanding construction though. – John D Sep 03 '22 at 21:22