Recently, I found out someone has tried to prove that $x^2 + 1 = 0$ in $\mathbb{R}$, Here is the detail:
\begin{align*} x^2 + 1 = 0 \\ (x^2 + 1)(x^2 - 1) = 0(x^2 - 1)\\ x^4 - 1 = 0 \\ x^4 = 1\\ \Longrightarrow x \in \{-1,1\} \end{align*}
This is a repaired version of the original he threw at me, after I point out that it is wrong. The original one use the notation "$\Longrightarrow$" to assume his multiplication. Here is how it looks like:
\begin{equation*} x^2 + 1 = 0 \Longrightarrow (x^2 + 1)(x^2 - 1) = 0(x^2 - 1) \Longrightarrow x^4 - 1 = 0 \Longrightarrow x^4 = 1 \end{equation*}
From my knowledge of logic theory to the very least, by the way of using "$\Longrightarrow$", you are "implying" something. Suppose that we are given two statements, $A$ and $B$. $A ⇒ B$ means that you are implying that "If $A$ then $B$", or from $A$ you implies that $B$ is something like this or that. The statement $A⇒B$ doesn't make any claim about whether $B$ also implies $A$. Therefore, even if for a "wrong" transformation, the statement $B$ does not implies that it will be applied inversely to $A$, thus the prove is likely to be nothing. This is already discussed in this post on MathStackExchange:
The statement $A⇒B$ doesn't make any claim about whether $B$ also implies $A$. Defining it this way makes certain things a lot easier, since we can now say (e.g.) $x>7⇒x>5$. This is a true mathematical statement $(A⇒B)$ for real x. In other words, $A⇒B$ is true. But what if we let $x=6$? Now $B$ is true but $A$ is false; yet you'd still agree that $A⇒B$ is true. It just so happens that $A$ is false in this one case; that doesn't impact the overall truth or falsehood of $A⇒B$.
Now that's is for the "original" proof he gave me. After that, he typically "fix" it, by reading it as purely as a algebraic manipulation task. This is my least trial of proving he is wrong.
First, the statement is already false, geometrically. To "prove" that $x^2 + 1 = 0$ basically means you are solving to find where the function $f: x \longmapsto x^2 + 1$ cross the x-axis. $x^2 + 1$ from the beginning has the $+1$ as the translation up, that is, the vertex will always be $(1,0)$, and considering that this is a even quadratic function, it is unlikely that there will be any intersection even if you tried to search for it along all $\mathbb{R}$
Second, multiplying anything with $0$ will result in $0$. By "factor" out $x^2 -1$ from both side is wrong, since you are altering the solution sets of the total equation.
Last, don't use what you are wanting to prove to prove itself. If you use itself to prove it, then it is similar as you are assuming it, therefore, you don't have to prove it anymore.
The question here is: Am I right, how can I fix my reasoning if I was wrong, and what is your attempt to de-prove his proof?