I have $$ 6y=x^2 \quad ∧\quad (y=2 \quad ∨\quad y=-8)$$$$ \iff (6y=x^2 \quad ∧ \quad y=2 ) \quad ∨\quad (6y=x^2 \quad ∧\quad y=-8). \tag1$$ Is it correct to say that step (1) is valid because $$ A ∧(B ∨ C) ⇔ (A∧B)∨ (A∧C)\tag2$$ is a tautology?
But does (2) being a tautology really legitimize what I did in (1)? After all (2) belongs to propositional logic while (1) belongs to predicate logic.
Here is my attempt to answer my question:
Yes, I would think that it is enough to show that (2) is a tautology to legitimize what I did in (1). The reason is that the truth table of (2) contains ALL the possible combinations of logical values (“true” or ” false”) of $A$, $B$ and $C$. Even though $6y=x^2$ , $y=2$ and $y=-8$ are predicates, they turn into a true or false sentence after I plugged in certain numbers. For example, when I plug in $y=2$ ,$x=\sqrt{12}$ into (1): this $6y=x^2$ and this $y=2$ becomes true, while this $y=-8$ becomes false. But that’s a situation I can find in the truth table of (2) as the row where $$ A=1 \ \ \ \ B=1 \ \ \ \ C=0 \ \ . $$ For everything that can happen in (1) I can find a corresponding row from the truth table of (2). That’s why the truth table of (2) “covers” everything that can happen in (1). And that’s why the tautology in (2) legitimizes the step in (1).