Revised answer with Addendum
$\text{Every human needs a shelter.}\tag0$
The phrase “needs/wants a/some” is tricky (impossible?) formalise, because it ostensibly calls for existential quantification yet the object needed may not exist. I gave up trying to translate $(0),$ so shall just cheat by adding an axiom $$\exists x\; \text{shelter}(x),$$ in which case $(0)$ is equivalent to $$\forall x\:\Big(\text{human}(x)\rightarrow \exists y\:\big(\text{shelter}(y)\land \text{need}(x,y)\big)\Big).\tag3$$
There is another axiom: no human is a shelter, and vice versa. However, this is common to both $(0)$ and $(3),$ so isn't required for them to be equivalent.
$$\forall x,y\: \Big(\text{human}(x)\rightarrow \big(\text{shelter}(y)\rightarrow \text{need}(x,y)\big)\Big).\tag1$$
$(1)$ is wrong, since it is equivalent to
- every human needs every shelter.
$$\forall x\:\Big(\text{human}(x)\rightarrow \exists y\:\big(\text{shelter}(y)\rightarrow \text{need}(x,y)\big)\Big).\tag2$$
$(2)$ is also wrong, since unlike $(0),$ it is indeed true whenever the universe contains a non-shelter. It is equivalent to
- for each human, for some object, if it's a shelter then the human needs it.
The problem with $(2)$ is that it entails that the existence of humans implies the existence of shelters, i.e. for every interpretation, where shelter is empty and human is not empty, the formula is falsified.
No $(2)$ doesn't entail what you're claiming: if the universe contains a human but no shelter, then $(2)$ is true. (Why?) Read more about sentence $(2)$ here.
Addendum (orthogonal)
@ryang Let us consider an interpretation consisting of exactly one variable $x,$ which is a human. This interpretation satisfies $$\forall x\:\Big(\text{human}(x)\rightarrow \exists y\:\big(\text{shelter}(y)\rightarrow \text{need}(x,y)\big)\Big),\tag2$$ because the right hand side of the implication in (2) is satisfied due to the existence of $x,$ which is not a shelter.
If we assume that either the human is not a shelter or they need themself, then $(2)$ is true. (Remember, of the current interpretation, although we know that the universe is $\{h\},$ the predicates' meanings haven't been properly specified.)
As a matter of fact, following the same argument, (2) is satisfied for any interpretation with a non empty universe.
This italicised portion is just an illogical leap, and the boldfaced claim is false.
Noting that a non-empty universe is a standard given anyway, your boldfaced claim is precisely rephrased as “sentence $(2)$ is a logical validity, i.e., true regardless of interpretation”. If you don't immediately see that this is absurd, click on these links: sentence $(2)$ is neither valid nor unsatisfiable; that is, sentence $(2)$ is alternately true and false as the interpretation varies.