In my abstract algebra book in the preliminary section there is a review of relations, mappings, etc. In the practice problems there are a few problems that check your understanding.
Example 1:
$$f(\frac{p}{q}) = \frac{3p}{3q}$$
This one is trivially a mapping because no matter what p, q you choose you will get a unique value from Q to Q.
Example 2:
$$f(\frac{p}{q}) = \frac{p + q}{q^2}$$
This one is not a mapping. A counter-example is $f(1/2) \neq f(2/4)$. These both map to different values so this cannot be a mapping.
But I am left kind of confused on the "proof" part. Showing a relation is not a mapping seems to be difficult because you have to search for a counter-example of a potentially hard problem. But proving something is a mapping seems extremely difficult. Is it possible to construct some kind of contradiction to prove it, or are you left sort of "guessing and checking"? I am self learning at the moment so I don't really have a professor to ask this to.