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Motivation for the question:
While I can appreciate the significance of Theorem 30.1 below, and also the Urysohn metrization theorem, I can't seem to understand why either of them is rooted in these countability axioms, as in what their essence is.

Question: Could someone explain the essence of how having such countability axioms leads to such nice results?


Relevant Definitions

First countability: A space X is said to have a countable basis at $x$ if there is a countable collection $B$ of neighborhoods of $x$ such that each neighborhood of $x$ contains at least one of the elements of $B$. A space that has a countable basis at each of its points is said to satisfy the first countability axiom.

Second countability: If a space $X$ has a countable basis for its topology, then $X$ is said to satisfy the second countability axiom.

Theorem 30.1. (Chapter-4 Munkres's Topology) Let $X$ be a topological space.
(a) Let $A$ be a subset of $X$. If there is a sequence of points of $A$ converging to $x$, then $x \in \bar{A}$; the converse holds if $X$ is first-countable.
(b) Let $f: X \rightarrow Y$. If $f$ is contınuous, then for every convergent sequence $x_{n} \rightarrow x$ in $X$, the sequence $f\left(x_{n}\right)$ converges to $f(x)$. The converse holds if $X$ is first countable.

(Earlier on) Our goal is to prove the Urysohn metrization theorem, if a topological space $X$ satisfies certain countability axiom (the second) and a certain seperation axiom (the regularity axiom), then $X$ can be imbedded in a metric space and is this metrizable


I am looking for something around the lines of the discussions in these questions:

Edit: I found out that the intuition behind this question is discussed in Tai Danae Bradley's Categorical approach to topology chapter-3. So check that out if you want a resolution.

  • Note to self: I would like to note that comapctness based proofs involves stating something about an infinite set and turning that into smthn about finite one, so it seems so some infinities are more manageble than others – tryst with freedom Aug 20 '22 at 07:46

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Concerning theorem 30.1, that's because sequences are countable things. If you work with the more general concepts of filters or nets, then there is no restriction. For instance, on any topological space $X$, given a subset $A$,$$\overline A=\{x\in X\mid x\text{ is a limit of some net of elements of }A\}.$$