Let $b,c\in \mathbb{N}$ such that $b\gt c$. Let $r_{-1}=b$ and $r_0=c$. Then we define the numbers $q_i$ and $r_i$ as the quotient and remainder of euclidean division of $r_{i-2}$ and $r_{i-1}$, i.e. $$r_{i-2}=r_{i-1}q_i+r_i$$ where $0\le r_i\lt r_{i - 1}$. Let $j$ be the index of the last nonzero remainder. Then $r_{j+1}=0$ and $r_j=\gcd (b, c)$.
We will also define $$x_{-1}=1,\space\space\space x_0=0,\space\space\space x_i=x_{i-2}-q_ix_{i-1}$$ $$y_{-1}=0,\space\space\space y_0=1,\space\space\space y_i=y_{i-2}-q_iy_{i-1}$$ In these sequences, $bx_i+cy_i=r_i$ for all $i \in \{-1, 0, 1, ..., j, j + 1\}$ so $x_j$ and $y_j$ are Bézout's coefficients for $b$ and $c$.
A property that I have found to hold is that $\gcd (x_i, y_i)=1$ for all $i \in \{-1, 0, 1, ..., j, j + 1\}$. I haven't found a counterexample so I feel as though it holds. Does the statement hold, and what would a proof look like if it does? I'm quite frustrated because it seems like proving the statement should be trivial, and I'm sure that it is. Any insight and help are appreciated.