Why can't we convert $dx$ and $dy$ to polar and straight out multiply the answer to get the area element? By multiply I mean, taking x=rcos(theta) and y=… and then taking differentials dx and dy and multiplying them. Answers here point out that wedge is supposed to be used but this is just a rectangle so do we still need it and why? Thank you.
-
2What does "straight out multiply the answer to get the area element" mean? Show your work. – anon Aug 11 '22 at 06:43
-
Please clarify your specific problem or provide additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it's hard to tell exactly what you're asking. – Community Aug 11 '22 at 06:46
-
Because $dx$ and $dy$ are not real numbers, so you can't just multiply them (and the fact that this doesn't work is further indication that they're not real numbers). That's like hoping an apple becomes an orange the next day. See e.g the first half of my answer here. – peek-a-boo Aug 11 '22 at 06:48
-
I mean why can’t I use the function of x(r,theta) and y(r,theta), find dx and dy in terms of dr and dtheta and then multiply them?. – Shaashaank Aug 11 '22 at 07:13
-
1In some sense you do "just multiply" dx and dy. But you have to use the multiplication rules for differentials instead of real numbers as @peek-a-boo pointed out. The product for differentials is written with wedge to indicate its nature is different from number multiplication. It's as for matrices: you can multiply them, but it's not just "number multiplication", e.g. in general $AB=BA$ is true for numbers, but neither matrices nor differentials. – Thomas Preu Aug 11 '22 at 07:37
-
Welcome to Math.SE! <> Searching on-site for "multiplying differentials" (for example) turns up a number of potentially-useful hits. – Andrew D. Hwang Aug 11 '22 at 11:18
-
Does this answer your question? Why can't we convert the area element $dA$ to polar by multiplying the polar expressions for $dx$ and $dy$? – Mark S. Aug 11 '22 at 12:11
2 Answers
This becomes less mysterious if you just consider the situation in pure linear algebra.
Suppose you are in the plane $\mathbb{R}^2$ and you want to measure areas; suppose you want to measure the area spanned by the orthogonal vectors $\hat{i}=(1,0)$ and $\hat{j}=(0,1)$. One way way to do this is to just multiply their sides to get $1$. Now suppose you express $\hat{i}$ and $\hat{j}$ in a different basis. Let this other basis constitute the vectors $v=(1,1),w=(0,2)$. Write the same old vectors in terms of this basis: $$\hat{i}=v-\dfrac{w}{2}$$ $$\hat{j}=\dfrac{w}{2}$$
Your goal now is to write the Area spanned by $\hat{i},\hat{j}$ denoted by $A(\hat{i},\hat{j})$ in terms of area spanned by $w,v$ denoted by $A(v,w)$ (notice how this is analogous to writing the area differential $dxdy$ in terms of $drd\theta$). Next you put the components of $\hat{i},\hat{j}$ (w.r.t. $v,w$ basis) in a matrix and take the determinant to compute $A(\hat{i},\hat{j})$ in terms of $A(v,w)$; this should hopefully be an intuitive statement. Draw a picture for this to become obvious:
$$A(\hat{i},\hat{j})=\text{det} \bigg(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 1/2 & 1/2 \\ \end{bmatrix}\bigg)A(v,w)=\dfrac {A(v,w)}{2}=1$$
This could alternatively be written in terms of the wedge product $\wedge$ since it exactly mimics the behavior of the determinant: $$A(\hat{i},\hat{j})=\hat{i} \wedge \hat{j} = (v-\dfrac{w}{2}) \wedge (\dfrac{w}{2}) = \dfrac{1}{2} v \wedge w - \dfrac{1}{4} w \wedge w= \dfrac{1}{2} Area(v,w)$$
In exact analogy you do this for the polar/cartesian differentials. The chart map induces a basis and dual basis at each point on your manifold, hence you can do the above at each tangent space. so we literally just repeat the steps:
$$dx=cos(\theta)dr-rsin(\theta)d\theta$$ $$dy=sin(\theta) dr +rcos(\theta) d\theta$$
$$dx \wedge dy = A(dx,dy)=\text{det} \bigg(\begin{bmatrix} cos(\theta) & -rsin(\theta) \\ sin(\theta) & rcos(\theta) \\ \end{bmatrix}\bigg)A(dr,d\theta)=r dr \wedge d\theta$$
The key idea is this: If you want a way to compute areas under arbitrary change of bases you need to use the determinant rather than the native rule of "multiplying side lengths" since this only works in the canonical basis. But in differential geometry we work in many different and crazy charts which induce a change of basis at every point and hence requires a notion of area that works in arbitrary basis. But as you can see, this is pure linear algebra and it is not unique to differential geometry.
Also note: technically $dx$,$dy$ are covectors and not vectors; this has its own reasons but doesn't affect the main point of this post.
Edit:
You're on the right track to understanding this but there's one thing you're missing.
All what you say is true, $x+dx=rcos\theta +drcos\theta -rsin\theta d\theta$ and the same for $y$; now comes the key idea: Notice that now you are in the $r-\theta$ plane. Hence the elements $dx$ and $dy$ (written in terms of increments of $dr$ and $d\theta$) are oblique in the $r-\theta$ space. So to clarify: $dx$ does not point in the right direction, and $dy$ does not point in the up direction since you are in the $r-\theta$ space. This can be seen since you have written them in terms of $r$ and $\theta$. In the $r-\theta$ plane $dr$ is to the right and $d\theta$ points up. This is what i've been trying to tell you all along: You are now seeing things from a different basis. What was once right and up is no longer up and right and hence you can't just naively multiply their sides, you must use the determinant. Basically the problem is that whenever you express $dx$, $dy$ in terms of $dr$, $d\theta$ then you are trying to compute the area spanned by $dxdy$ in the $r \theta$ plane and in terms of $dr$ and $d\theta$ (which are along right and up directions in $r-\theta$ plane). This is equivalent to the problem I adressed in my post.
So I suggest you do the following: draw explicitly $dx$ and $dy$ in the $r-\theta$ plane and you should immediately realize where your problem lies.

- 1,614
-
Thank you so much for your answer, I understand this from a linear algebra perspective but I also tried assuming that dx and dy are numbers, for example let f = x^2 y^2. I then assumed that x, y are both 1 and dx,dy are both 0.1. The calculation for df or small change in f, comes out to be correct using partial derivatives. So why is it wrong for me to think of them as numbers?. – Shaashaank Aug 12 '22 at 07:18
-
Because to calculate $df$ you only need the length of $dx$, $dy$, and not their orientation. On the other hand whenever you are calculating areas, the orientation of $dx$, $dy$ with respect to $dr$ $d\theta$ becomes important precisely because you are trying to calculate one in terms of the other. This should all be very clear visually if you draw them. Draw $dx$, $dy$ as a pair of small sides emnating from a point (x,y); then draw $dr$, $d\theta$ (as functions of x,y) emnating from that same point. Your task now is to express area spanned by $dx$$dy$ in terms of area spanned by $dr$$d\theta$ – Leonid Aug 12 '22 at 11:33
-
.....try to calculate that explicitly and you'll notice that you are inevitably led to the wedge product. So again, the wedge product comes from our need to express a given area in terms of an area spanned by some other basis vectors. – Leonid Aug 12 '22 at 11:35
-
Why can’t I just do this without vectors? As in, let the point (x,y) get mapped to (r,theta). Then (x+dx,y) gets mapped to (r+dr, theta-dtheta) and (x,y+dy) gets mapped to (r+dr, theta+dtheta). So to find dx, I just need to do (r+dr)(cos(theta-dtheta))-rcostheta and similarly I can find dy and then multiply these two terms?. Could you please tell me why this is going to be incorrect?. – Shaashaank Aug 12 '22 at 16:33
-
Just to clarify it a bit more, I mean on a 2d plane, take a point (x,y) and then draw a vector from the origin to (x,y) whose length is r. So rcostheta is going to be x and then x+dx= (r+dr)(cos(theta-dtheta)) and then we get dx by subtracting both. We find dy similarly and then multiplying dx dy just like number should be enough right?. – Shaashaank Aug 12 '22 at 16:42
-
-
Yes I understand what you mean, I drew another set of axes which have r and theta on the axes and then used that to derive the Jacobian. The only doubt I have left is why can’t I draw both x,y and r, theta on the same plane? r is just the length of the vector and theta is the angle from the x axis right? So why can’t I just solve it visually?. I am not able to convey it without an image but the axes basically have x and y and the length of the vector is r and theta is the angle from the x axis and then the argument from above continues. Thank you for your help, I really appreciate it!. – Shaashaank Aug 12 '22 at 18:49
As was pointed out in the comments to this question the multiplication of numbers and of differential forms are different. E.g. number multiplication obeys the commutativity rule $AB=BA$, while multiplication of differentials does not in general. That is why we use the $\wedge$-sign to indicate this different nature of multiplication.
Differentials have an anticommutativity rule: $dx\wedge dy=-dy\wedge dx$. Here is a conceptual way to understand this. Differentials like $dx$ with one component are used in measuring length, differentials like $dx\wedge dy$ with two components are relevant to measuring area. If you swap $dy\wedge dx$ then you change the "orientation" of the area in question and the area is measured with negative weight.
This comes in handy if you think about very elementary situations: If you have an L-shape that it is obtained by removing a rectangle from a larger one at one of the corners you want to compute the area of the L-shape as the difference of the areas of the two rectangles, i.e. the sum of the two areas but with the area of the smaller rectangle having negative weight. The anticommutativity of the $\wedge$-product helps in such situations and is useful there. Because of this, multiplication of differentials is different in nature than multiplication of numbers.
If you want to see how $\wedge$-products work out computationally in an explicit example you can go to the link provided by peek-a-boo or wikipedia.
You can also compare with multiplication of matrices or of quaternions: for these commutativity doesn't hold in general either. However the motivation and details why and how commutativity is violated in these cases is different from differentials.

- 2,002