Please note that the following is not a duplicate:
Why negating universal quantifier gives existential quantifier?
I am asking for a particular type of formal proof. I have added the alternative-proof tag because I can prove it one way, but I would like another way.
I have recently had the pleasure of finding Proof Checker. I want to brush up on my logic - in which I am entirely self-taught - and in doing so, I found that I am stuck trying to prove
$$(\lnot\forall xPx)\to(\exists y(\lnot Py)).\tag{1}$$
Well, when I say "prove", I mean using the following rules:
- modus ponens ->E
- modus tollens MT
- modus tollendo ponens DS
- double negation DNE
- addition vI
- adjunction ^I
- simplification ^E
- bicondition <->I
- equivalence <->E
- repeat Rep
- conditional derivation ->I
- reductio ad absurdum RAA
- universal instantiation AE
- universal derivation AI
- existential instantiation EE
- existential generalization EI
- identity introduction =I
- substitution of identicals =E
. . . in a "Fitch-style" proof.
These rules can be found on the Proof Checker site.
I know the following.
Suppose the opposite. Then $$\lnot((\lnot\forall xPx)\to(\exists y(\lnot Py))).$$ The only way for an implication to be false is for its assumption to be true, $\lnot\forall xPx$, while its conclusion is false, $\lnot(\exists y(\lnot Py))$. From the former, we have $\lnot Pa$ for some $a$. From the latter, we have $\lnot\lnot Pa$, from which we have $Pa$, a contradiction.
This is the written form of the method of analytic tableaux applied to $(1)$; namely:
$$\begin{array}{ccc} 1. & \lnot(\lnot\forall xPx\to\exists y\lnot Py) & \,\\ 2. & \lnot\forall xPx & (1)\\ 3. & \lnot \exists y\lnot Py & (1)\\ 4. & \lnot Pa & (2)\\ 5. & \lnot\lnot Pa & (3)\\ 6. & Pa & (5) \end{array}$$
It seems to assume (at least in the metalogic) what I set out to prove. I don't know how to convert this to a formal proof.
For what it's worth (and I think it's worth very little), I suppose the proof starts out like (or contains) this:
$$\frac{|1. \lnot \forall xPx}{\vdots}.$$
That is, I can start (a subproof) by assuming $\lnot\forall xPx$. My problem is that, as far as I can see, none of the given rules allows me to go from $\lnot\forall xPx$ to $\lnot Pa$, which is what I am guessing is the next line, especially if the tableaux method is anything to go by.
Please help :)