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In a physics related context I've been trying to solve the following two integrals:

(i) $$ \text{int}_1 = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \csc\left( \frac{\pi+2 i z}{2 \sqrt{2} } \right) \text{sech}^2(z) \,dz $$

(ii) $$ \text{int}_2 = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\csc\left( \frac{\pi+2 i z}{2 \sqrt{2} } \right) \text{sech}^2(z)}{\pi + 2 i z} \,dz $$

My strategy to solve them was to expand $\csc(a+bz)$ and/or $\text{sech}^2(z)$ using Mittag-Lefflers-theorem and then to swap the order of integration and summation. Unfortunately, I don't see any way to simplify anything in those expressions and the product of the two series is quite nasty as well (does it even converge?). Maybe one can use the fact that only the real parts are even and therefore non-vanishing for the bounds of integration.

Do you have any other strategy to solve those integrals or an idea how to use the approach that I tried?

Michael
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    The first integral is equal to: $$\frac{5\pi}{6\sqrt{2}}$$ – FShrike Aug 03 '22 at 12:46
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    Do you know contour integration? Because, you’re very lucky, these integrand are amenable to a simple contour technique. But, welcome to the site: you probably received that downvote because you hadn’t shown “enough” work or context. – FShrike Aug 03 '22 at 12:48
  • Thanks for your answers :) – Michael Aug 03 '22 at 19:02
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    Good luck! And you’re welcome. What was the physics behind these integrals? – FShrike Aug 03 '22 at 19:55
  • It has something to do with local conductances and noise between bosonic channels in a fractional quantum Hall system :) – Michael Aug 04 '22 at 06:01
  • Wow... that kind of physics is very much beyond me – FShrike Aug 04 '22 at 09:38

2 Answers2

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Contour used To elaborate on @FShrike’s approach, we can use a rectangular contour as shown to evaluate the first integral. The same method does not work on the second since the integral cancels out and we are left with $0$.

Define $$f(z)=\csc \left(\frac{\pi+2iz}{2\sqrt{2}}\right)\operatorname{sech}^2 (z)$$ There is a third-order pole at $z=\frac{i\pi}{2}$ enclosed by the contour so by Cauchy’s residue theorem \begin{align}\oint_{C} f(z)\,dz&=2\pi i \operatorname{Res}\left[f(z),\,z=\frac{i\pi}{2}\right]\\&=2\pi i\cdot\frac{1}{2}\lim_{z\to \frac{i\pi}{2}} \frac{d^2}{dz^2} \left(\left(z-\frac{i\pi}{2}\right)^3 f(z)\right)\\&=2\pi i \cdot \frac{-5i}{6\sqrt{2}}=\frac{5\pi}{3\sqrt{2}}\\&=\int_{\psi_1}+\int_{\psi_2}+\int_{\psi_3} + \int_{\psi_4}\end{align}

We parametrise over $\psi_3$ by setting $z=t+i\pi \implies dz=dt$ giving $$\int_{\psi_3} f(z)\,dz =\int_{R}^{-R} -\csc \left(\frac{\pi-2it}{2\sqrt{2}}\right)\operatorname{sech}^2 (t)\,dt\stackrel{t\mapsto -x}{=}\int_{-R}^{R} \csc \left(\frac{\pi+2ix}{2\sqrt{2}}\right)\operatorname{sech}^2 (x)\,dx=\int_{\psi_1} f(x)\,dx$$

As $R \to \infty$ it can be shown that the integrals over $\psi_2$ and $\psi_4$ go to $0$, so $$2\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \csc \left(\frac{\pi+2ix}{2\sqrt{2}}\right)\operatorname{sech}^2 (x)\,dx=\frac{5\pi}{3\sqrt{2}}$$

So $$I_1=\frac{5\pi}{6\sqrt{2}}$$ as desired. $\square$

KStarGamer
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    I shall attempt to determine the second integral and will edit my answer with the solution if I can find one. – KStarGamer Aug 03 '22 at 15:42
  • wow, thanks a lot! I will try it as well! You helped me so much :) – Michael Aug 03 '22 at 19:02
  • when I try to do a similar computation for $int_2$, I get the very convenient result 0 = 0...Did you manage to solve it? – Michael Aug 05 '22 at 10:41
  • @Michael that’s the same issue I was having and is why I mentioned the second integral cannot be evaluated with the same method- I have not been able to evaluate it with any method I’m aware of. By the way, the rectangular contour method does work out if you divide by an even power of $\pi+2iz$ instead, but I’m not sure about how to go about evaluating odd powers. – KStarGamer Aug 05 '22 at 12:29
  • Oh, true, you already wrote that...Should've read it again. Thank you! If I manage to get a solution, I will share it :) – Michael Aug 05 '22 at 18:18
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To solve $int_2$, I tried the following using Mittag-Lefflers' theorem and the corresponding expansions of $\csc(x)$ and $\text{sech}^2(x)$ given by $$ \text{csc}(x) = \underbrace{\frac{1}{x}}_{A_1} + \underbrace{2 x \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^k}{x^2 - (\pi k)^2}}_{A_2}, \forall \frac{x}{\pi} \notin \mathbb{Z} \\ \text{with } \ x = \frac{\pi + 2 i z}{2 \sqrt{2}} $$ and $$ \text{sech}^2(z)= \underbrace{\frac{8 (\pi^2 - 4 z^2}{(\pi^2 + 4 z^2)^2}}_{B_1} - \overbrace{\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\left( z - (k+\frac{1}{2}) i \pi \right)^2}}^{B_{21}} - \overbrace{\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\left( z + (k+\frac{1}{2}) i \pi \right)^2}}^{B_{22}}, \forall \frac{i z}{\pi} \pm \frac{1}{2} \notin \mathbb{Z} \ . $$ Applying those to the problem, the integrand of $int_2$ now consists of 5 contributions: $$ int_2 = I_2 = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{A_1 B_1 - A_1 B_2 + B_1 A_2 - A_2 B_{21} - A_2 B_{22}}{\pi+2 iz} \,dz \ . $$ Using Cauchy's product formula $\left( \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} a_i \right)\left( \sum_{j=1}^{\infty} b_j \right) = \sum_{k \geq 1} \sum_{l=1}^k a_l b_{k+1-l}$, I get for the addends $A_2 B_{2i}$ (summation is now from $k: 1 \to \infty$ (first sum) and $l: 1\to k$ (second sum)) $$ A_2 B_{21} = \frac{(-1)^l}{\left(-\pi ^2 l^2+\frac{1}{8} (\pi +2 i z)^2\right) \left(z-i \pi \left(k-l+\frac{3}{2}\right)\right)^2} $$ and $$ A_2 B_{22} = \frac{(-1)^l}{\left(-\pi ^2 l^2+\frac{1}{8} (\pi +2 i z)^2\right) \left(z+i \pi \left(k-l+\frac{3}{2}\right)\right)^2} \ . $$ Swapping the order of summation and integration and performing the integrals, I get the results $$ \text{int}(A_1 B_1) = \frac{2 \sqrt{2}}{\pi ^2} \ ,\\ \text{int}(A_1 B_2) = -\frac{2 \sqrt{2}}{\pi ^2 (k+1)^3} \ ,\\ \text{int}(B_1 A_2) = -\frac{(-1)^k \left(4 k^2+2 \sqrt{2} k+1\right)}{2 k^3 \left(\pi \sqrt{2} k+\pi \right)^2} \ ,\\ \text{int}(A_2 B_{21}) = \frac{(-1)^l}{2 \pi ^3 l^2 \left(2 \left(\sqrt{2}-1\right) (k+1) l+(k+1)^2+\left(3-2 \sqrt{2}\right) l^2\right)} \text{and}\\ \text{int}(A_2 B_{22}) = \frac{(-1)^l \left(\frac{2}{(k-l+2)^2}-\frac{1}{\left(k+\left(\sqrt{2}-1\right) l+2\right)^2}\right)}{2 \pi ^3 l^2} \ . $$ Performing the sums, I get (using Lerch $\Phi$-function and Riemann $\zeta$ function) $$ \sum_{k=1}^\infty \text{int}(A_1 B_2) = -\frac{2 \sqrt{2} (\zeta (3)-1)}{\pi ^2} \ \text{and} \\ \sum_{k=1}^\infty \text{int}(B_1 A_2) = \frac{-8 \Phi \left(-1,1,1+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)+3 \zeta (3)-\sqrt{2} \zeta \left(2,\frac{1}{4} \left(\sqrt{2}+2\right)\right)+\sqrt{2} \zeta \left(2,\frac{1}{4} \left(\sqrt{2}+4\right)\right)+\log (256)}{8 \pi ^2} \ . $$ For the last two terms in the integral $$ \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \sum_{l=1}^k \text{int}(A_2 B_{21}) \quad \text{and} \quad \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \sum_{l=1}^k \text{int}(A_2 B_{22}) $$ I don't find those nice solutions... Plotting two double series' $\sum_k^{k_{max}}\sum_{l}^k$ for $1 \leq k \leq k_{max} = 200$ however, one could get the intuition, that the expressions converge to something (see figure below) - Does anyone have an idea of how to find the corresponding expressions and do you think that this approach is correct? enter image description here

Michael
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