I working on a question which I can't figure out by myself and I would like your help. It goes as follows.
Show that the tangent to a hyperbola at any point $(x_0,y_0)$ can be described by the equation $$b^{2} x_{0} x-a^{2} y_{0} y=a^{2} b^{2}$$ To do this use the general formula for a hyperbola given by: $$\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1$$
What I have already tried
- My first thougt proces was trying to differentiate the hyperbola function implicitly to $x$, which gives you $\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{b^2x_0}{a^2y_0}$ (with the point already filled in). Then I used the formula for a tangent line and solved, but althoug it looked similar it wasn't quite the same as mentioned above. I've got $$a^2y^2+a^2y_0y =b^2x_0x-b^2x_0^2$$
- Then I thougt I maybe didn't understand what was being asked, so maybe the point is not bounded to the curve but could be any point on the $x$ and $y$ axis. So then I solved the hyperbola function for $y$, which gave me a positive and negative solution in terms of $x$. And then I stopped because I didn't think this would me the best way.
so if anyone could help me, please do. It would be very much appreciated ;)