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I have to decide whether or not $\mathbb{Z}$ is an ideal of $\mathbb{Q}$.

My attempt:

$\exists q\in\mathbb{Q}$ and $z\in\mathbb{Z} $ such that $qz\notin\mathbb{Z}$, for example for $q=\frac{1}{2}, z=1$.

Thus, $\mathbb{Z}$ is a subring of $\mathbb{Q}$, but not its ideal.

Am I right?

1 Answers1

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Your demonstration that $\mathbb{Z}$ is not an ideal of $\mathbb{Q}$ is sufficient, since it shows that $\mathbb{Z}$ does not "absorb" multiplication by $\mathbb{Q}$; in fact, it spills out to the entirety of $\mathbb{Q}$.

It is also enough to observe that $\mathbb{Q}$ is a field; fields only have two ideals—the trivial zero ring and the entire field. (In fact, the implication goes both ways—if a commutative ring has only two ideals, it is a field. See this question on this site, for example.)

egreg
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Brian Tung
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