Trying to solve / approximate for $n$ in $$n!=x\tag 1$$ where $x$ is given, I started with Stirling's approximation
$$n!\approx\sqrt{2\pi n}(n/e)^n\tag 2$$
Taking log and divide by $e$:
$$\frac1{2e}\ln(2\pi n)+\frac ne\ln(n/e)\approx \frac1e\ln x \tag3$$
Now in order to proceed, I neglected the left term with $\ln(2\pi n)$ and took the 0-th branch of Lambert $W$ assuming $x$ is large:
$$\ln n - 1 = \ln(n/e) = W(\tfrac ne\ln(n/e))\approx W(\tfrac1e\ln x) \tag4$$
Finally, adding $1$ and taking $\exp$ yields the approximation
$$n \approx \exp\left(1+W\Big(\frac1e\ln x\Big)\right) \tag5$$
That approximation is not too bad, but the results are too big by ca. 0.7 for bigger numbers; for example $x=100!$ yields $n\approx 100.7$.
Question: Is there a way to improve the result? For example, something that's smarter than just throwing away $\ln(2\pi n)$ in $(3)$.
I tried to find a better approximation of $\sum_k \ln k$ but all I found was solutions that effectively referred back to Stirling's $(2)$.
That linked question doen't answer my question. First, it doesn't explain how to improve my calculation; and my question is about improving my calculation. Second, the term +0.5 is coming out of the blue and without explanation, except that it's "good". So no, that answer didn't help. In particular I don't seek for sites to copy-paste from, I am striving to getting better technique etc.
I checked that other answer again and i still does not explain where the 0.5 is coming from. It just asserts that value from the start and claims it it "good" starting with it.