I've read not all finite groups are automorphisms of a finite group, but I was reasoning (probably wrongly) like this:
Let's take $\Bbb Z_4$ and try to figure out some automorphisms out if it.
We can define $\Phi(\rho) = \rho^2$, and by this we'll get $\Bbb Z_2$ as automorphism group.
Since the modularity of $\Bbb Z_4$ any power of $g$ which will be $2(1+2n)$ will give the same $\Bbb Z_2$ as result.
Now, if take $\Phi(\rho)=\rho$ i.e. the $\Phi$ as the identity function, we'll have the other automorphism, i.e. $\Bbb Z_4$ itself. This is true for any $1+2n$.
Notice some powers are excluded, like $\Phi(\rho)=\rho^4$, since would send all elements to to the identity, violating the inejctivity of the homomorphism.
So, basically here I see two groups, i.e. $\Bbb Z_2$ and $\Bbb Z_4$.
So, I was guessing: if we take the identity function we will always have the same group as itself automorphism.
So, if this holds, every finite group is the automorphism of a at least one finite group, i.e. itself.
Where am I wrong in my reasoning, please?
Incidentally: I came across this since the book I'm reading defined $\Phi(\rho)=\rho^3$ as the function to be used to compute the $\Bbb Z_4$ automorphism, but using it I stumbled quickly in the whole group, so I realized by myself the right solution is using $2$ as power.
Tx in advance.