I'm reading Real Analysis by Royden (4th edition).
The problem I'm working on is in the title, were $f$ and $g$ are continuous functions on $[a,b]$.
What I know so far is that the set $\{x\,:\,f(x)\neq g(x)\}$ has measure zero. Also, I realized that $(f-g)^{-1}(R-\{0\})=\{x\,:\,f(x)\neq g(x)\}$. (R for the reals) What I'm thinking is to some how show that this set is empty, that way $f=g$ on all of $[a,b]$.
Thanks for any hints or feedback!