The question is to find this infinite series:
$$ \sum_{r = 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{r(r + \frac{1}{3})} = \; ? $$
I have tried applying the Riemann sum to the Integral technique as follows:
Assuming the lower and upper boundaries (a and b) are 0 and 1. Now, we know that
$$ \int_{0}^{1} {f(x)} \; dx = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{r = 1}^{n} f(\frac{r}{n}) $$
Therefore,
$$ \sum_{r = 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{r(r + \frac{1}{3})} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{r = 1}^{n} \frac{1}{r(r + \frac{1}{3})} $$
$$ = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{r = 1}^{n} \frac{n}{r(r + \frac{1}{3})} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{r = 1}^{n} \frac{n}{r} \frac{1}{({r+\frac{1}{3}})} $$
I'm stuck here.
Is there a different approach to this problem? Or, could this problem be solved this way?
Edit: Given in this comment below, does not answer my question. The answer is completely incomprehensible to me.