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Corresponding to a given prime integer $p$, and a positive integer $n$, show that there exists a finite field consisting of $p^n = q$ roots of $x^q − x$ over $\mathbb{Z}_p$, which is determined uniquely up to an isomorphism and is denoted by $F_{p^n}$ . This field is sometimes called the Galois field $GF(p^n)$.

How to construct this field? Any reference or help is appreciated.

I think now from the comments I can give the solution.

Let $K$ be a finite field. If $charK = p$, then $K$ may be considered as a finite dimensional vector space over $\mathbb{Z}_p$. Then the dimension of $K$ over $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is finite and let $ [K : \mathbb{Z}_p] = n$.Let $B = \{x_1,x_2,...,x_n\}$ be a basis of $K$ over $\mathbb{Z}_p$ and $x \in K$. Then $x$ can be expressed as $x = a_1x_1 + a_2x_2 +···+ a_nx_n$, where $a_i \in \mathbb{Z}_p$. As $\mathbb{Z}_p$ has $p$ elements,K has at most $p^n$ elements. Since B is a basis of K, the elements $a_1x_1 + a_2x_2 +···+ a_nx_n$ are all distinct for every distinct choice of elements $a_1,a_2,...,a_n$ of $\mathbb{Z}_p$.Thus K has exactly $p^n$ elements.

Now consider the multiplicative group $K - \{0\}$ is of order $p^n − 1$. If $y$ is a non-zero element of $K$, then $y^{p^n−1} = 1$ and hence $y^{p^n}=y$.Moreover, $0^{p^n}= 0$. Thus every element of K is a root of the polynomial $x^{p^n}− x $ over $\mathbb{Z}_p$.

Alexander
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    Which ways do you know to construct a field out of a ring? Quotiening out a maximal ideal is probably a good idea. – Matthias Jun 25 '22 at 07:26
  • Yeah I know that given a prime integer $p$ and a positive integer $n$, $\mathbb{Z}_p[x]/(f(x))$ is a field where $f(x)$ is maximal ideal of$ \mathbb{Z}_P[x]$. Now how to choose irreducible polynomial of degree $n$, $f(x)$ such that field consisting of $q$ roots of $x^q-x $ over $\mathbb{Z}_p$ – Alexander Jun 25 '22 at 07:32
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    This is a standard construction of the field of $q$ elements, and can be found in any text that discusses finite fields. Also, it may be discussed in question 425321 on this website. Or 3789288. – Gerry Myerson Jun 25 '22 at 07:42
  • @GerryMyerson I have edited the question and gives a solution. Can you please check it is allright or not – Alexander Jun 25 '22 at 08:19
  • I’m voting to close this question because this question while interesting and important, has definitely been covered on here before. – Mike Jun 25 '22 at 08:23
  • @Mike I think the solution or the question https://math.stackexchange.com/q/425321/711852 , https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3789288/711852 are quite different... – Alexander Jun 25 '22 at 08:26
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    The argument you give is good as far as it goes, but it doesn't show that these finite fields exist, and it doesn't show that any two finite fields with the same number of elements are isomorphic. – Gerry Myerson Jun 25 '22 at 23:28
  • Any thoughts on my comment, Epsilon? – Gerry Myerson Jun 27 '22 at 04:44
  • Well yeah I have seen your comment, but I am a little busy now thats why I couldn't answer it , you are right I have assumed the existence , now I think as we have given a prime $p$ and a positive integer $n$ from these we can construct the finite field $ \mathbb{Z}_p[x]/(f(x))$ which have $p^n$ elements and we can consider $K=\mathbb{Z}_p[x]/(f(x))$. Is it okay now? – Alexander Jun 27 '22 at 05:46
  • Not quite. $f$ must have degree $n$ and be irreducible over the field of $p$ elements, which means you must prove that for every prime $p$ and every positive integer $n$ there is such a polynomial. And there's still the question of uniqueness up to isomorphism. And if you want to be sure I see a comment intended for me, you have to include @Gerry in it. – Gerry Myerson Jun 27 '22 at 12:58
  • @GerryMyerson basically I am saying let's Consider the polynomial ring $\mathbb{Z}p[x]$ and an irreducible polynomial $f (x)$ of degree $n$ over $\mathbb{Z}_p$. As $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is a field, $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is PID and $f (x)$ is a maximal ideal of $\mathbb{Z}_p[x]$. Thus, $\mathbb{Z}_p[x]/(f (x))$ is a field. As deg$ f (x) = n$, an element of $\mathbb{Z}_p[x]/(f (x))$ is of the form $a_0 + a_1x + a_2x^2 +···+ a{n−1}x^{n−1}$, where $a_i \in \mathbb{Z}_p, i = 0, 1,...,n − 1$. Thus, $|\mathbb{Z}_p[x]/(f (x))| = p^n$. Is it okay? But I don't understand about to show the uniqueness. – Alexander Jun 27 '22 at 14:17
  • @GerryMyerson but I here i assumed the irrducible polynomial $f(x)$ – Alexander Jun 27 '22 at 14:21
  • @GerryMyerson I have found some very interesting threads regarding existence of irreducible polynomials over $\mathbb{Z}_p$ which is necklace polynomial https://math.stackexchange.com/a/152884/711852 I will study them and get back to you on this and I will be very busy for next two three days after that I will comment – Alexander Jun 27 '22 at 14:28
  • Let's review the bidding here. In the 1st paragraph of your post, you stated a problem. I thought you wanted help solving this problem. You gave a partial solution. I pointed out that your solution was incomplete; it proved neither the existence nor the uniqueness of the fields in question. Now, you have found posts regarding the existence of irreducible polynomials, etc. Good; now you know what you have to do to complete the existence part of the original question. And then you still need to show that if $A$ and $B$ are finite fields with the same number of elements then they are isomorphic. – Gerry Myerson Jun 28 '22 at 03:24

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