I feel like it's really easy and i'm just misunderstanding something. It's obvious that I need to use Wilson' and Fermat's theorems:
- $(p-1)!≡-1\mathrm{ \ mod \ }p$
- $a^{p-1}≡1\mathrm{ \ mod \ }p$ if $p$ does not divide $a$.
i figured i might divide $75$ (since it's not prime) into $5^2$ and $3$ and get the system:
$68!\mathrm{ \ mod \ }3+68^{86}\mathrm{ \ mod \ }3$
$68!\mathrm{ \ mod \ }5+68^{86}\mathrm{ \ mod \ }5$
Am i going in the right direction?