I recently asked a question on physics stackexchange on the math in Quantum Field Theory, but have yet to receive an answer:
https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/714183/inconsistency-in-mathematics-of-qft
I feel like my question boils down to a question of mathematical rigor, so I post a related question here at math stackexchange, but a much more concrete one:
Consider the wave function: \begin{align} \psi (x, t) = [\frac{1}{\sigma[1+i(t/\tau)]\sqrt{2\pi}}]^{\frac{1}{2}}\exp(-\frac{1}{4}\frac{x^2}{\sigma^{2}[1+i(t/\tau)]}), \end{align} where $\sigma, \tau$ are positive finite constants. If you consider its norm squared, namely: \begin{align} |\psi|^2 = \frac{1}{[2\pi\sigma^2(1+t^2/ \tau^2)]^{\frac{1}{2}}} \exp(-\frac{x^2}{2\sigma^2[1+t^2/\tau^2]}) \end{align} and consider its integration over the entire real line over x and then taking this integral to the limit of $t \to \infty$: \begin{align} \lim_{t \to \infty}(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi|^2dx) = \lim_{t \to \infty} 1 = 1. \end{align} The second eaquality is because the Gaussian distribution is correctly normalized. However, if one exchange the order of taking the limit in time, t and integration over space x, the result is different: \begin{align} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}(\lim_{t \to \infty}|\psi|^2dx) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} (0) \,dx = 0. \end{align} There is definitely some math involving the definition of the infinity that I misused here, but can someone with math background point out exactly how? Please keep in mind that I have a physics background, and only have a very little bit of knowledge in real analysis, etc, so if you can, please explain in less technical terms, or source some background materials if technical terms are inevitable.