I have a request for an alternative proof of a fact in ring theory. Given an extension of rings $R \supseteq A$, we say that $x\in R$ is integral over $A$ if there is a monic polynomial $p$ with coefficients from $A$ so that $p(x) = 0$.
In pg. 2 of Ash's "A Course in Algebraic Number Theory," Ash presents a theorem of the form "TFAE" for integrality over a ring. I am interested in an alternative proof of the following:
Theorem: If $x$ belongs to a subring $B \subseteq R$ which is a finitely-generated $A$-module so that $A \subseteq B$, then $x$ is integral over $A$.
Proof: Suppose that $B$ is $A$-generated by $\{\beta_1,\dots,\beta_n\}$. Then for each $i$:
$$x\beta_i = \sum_{i=1}^n c_{ij}\beta_j$$
for some $A$-coefficients $c_{ij}$. Writing $\overline{\beta}$ as the vector with elements $\beta_i$ and $C = [c_{ij}]$, it then follows that $(xI - C)\overline{\beta} = \overline{0}$. Recalling that $\text{adj}(A)A = \det(A)I$, it follows that $\det(xI-C)I\overline{\beta} = \overline{0}$, hence for every $b \in B$ it follows that $\det(xI - C)b = 0$. Setting $b=1$ gives the polynomial we sought. $\square$
Here is my question: is there a more "natural" proof of this fact? To avoid ambiguity, by "natural" I mean ring-theoretic. Since we have a foot in the world of modules, it's not unnatural to use some linear algebra, but when I tried to show this myself, it didn't even occur to me to use the determinant. So I suppose an alternative question I have is: "is there a nice proof here that doesn't use the determinant?"