I have a question. If I want to prove some limits, I use the $\delta-\epsilon$ definition. And I have to choose my $\delta := \min\{\delta_1,\delta_2,...,\delta_k\}$ to be sufficient. Why does it work? I have found one usefull answer, but I don't understand a very important place. So if we have the precise definition of limit.
$\lvert x-a \rvert<\delta$ then $\lvert f(x)-L \rvert< \epsilon$
which we might denote $P(\delta)$, regarding $f,a,L$ and $\epsilon$ as given/known.
If the condition $P(\delta)$ is true for some $\delta>0$ and if $0<\delta'<\delta$, then $P(\delta')$ is also true, $\textbf{because its hypothesis is logically more strict}$. I don't understand, why does it work? For example if $\lvert x-a \rvert<\delta$ and $0<\delta<\delta'$ its clearly that it will work for $\delta'$ because its greater, but why will it work for $\delta'$ if $0<\delta'<\delta$?
Thank you for help!