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Informally we can construct the complex numbers by starting with the real numbers and adding a new element $i$ which satisfy $i^2 = -1$. If we want to formalize this construction we usually use quotient fields, which is analogous to the informal construction, but a bit different on a technical level. However the informal construction still works and is enough for us to start doing computations and algebra with complex numbers. I was wondering if it was possible to make it formal, e.g like this:

We define an algebraic structure $ℂ$ such that:

  1. $ℂ$ is a field.

  2. $ℝ$ is a subfield of $ℂ$.

  3. There exist an element $i$ in $ℂ$ such that $i*i=-1$

Does this work as a rigorous construction? To me this doesn't look any less rigorous then e.g the peano axioms, and it captures everything from the informal construction.

Mettek
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    You could if you can prove that such set exist... – Surb Jun 12 '22 at 13:33
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    These axioms also include every superfield of $\mathbb C$. – eyeballfrog Jun 12 '22 at 13:35
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    In order to avoid the issue of "Is there one and only one such set (up to isomorphism)?" - cf. other comments -, you could take a more constructive approach. I.e. use $\mathbb{R}^2$ and define the complex multiplication.

    Of course then all field properties that involve multiplication have to be proven by hand. And topological properties of $\mathbb{C}$ also.

    – Jean-Armand Moroni Jun 12 '22 at 13:47
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    You can define it axiomatically that way. Then you are left needing to show that it exists, and that it is (essentially) unique. – JonathanZ Jun 12 '22 at 15:23
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    Perhaps the most concise way to address @eyeballfrog's point is to say $\Bbb C$ is the smallest such field, then prove that exists. – J.G. Jun 12 '22 at 17:43
  • @J.G. how would one go about proving that it exist? – Mettek Jun 13 '22 at 08:40
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    You can check $\Bbb R[i]$ works & is a subfield of anything that does. – J.G. Jun 13 '22 at 08:53
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    For some historical background see this answer on Cauchy's attempt to do so. – Bill Dubuque Jul 06 '22 at 19:32

3 Answers3

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The problem with your definition is that every single field containing the complex numbers as a subfield also satisfies your three conditions, so while the complex numbers satisfy your properties there are also many other non-isomorphic fields that that satisfy your property.

I suggest adding a fourth axiom that if $i^2=-1$, then the function $\mathbb{R}^2\to \mathbb{C}$ which maps each pair $(x,y)$ to $x+iy$ is bijective.

Any field satisfying these four axioms would be isomorphic to the complex numbers.

Alternatively as MJD points out you could instead add a fourth axiom that $\mathbb{C}$ is a subset of any field satisfying the three axioms. Then also any field satisfying the four axioms would be isomorphic to the complex numbers.

Vivaan Daga
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    We could also say that $\Bbb C$ is the intersection of all such fields. We sometimes do this when defining $\Bbb N$ and I think it works here as well. – MJD Jun 12 '22 at 16:37
  • @MJD Thanks I added that as well to the answer. – Vivaan Daga Jun 12 '22 at 17:48
  • thanks, adding that 4th axiom answered my question that this approach was indeed possible. im wondering though, what problems would we run into if we only used the first 3? anything we proved in that system would still be true in the complex numbers(and any superfield of it). my guess is that the problem is that there would be true statements in the complex numbers we couldn't prove in our system, because they do not hold in all superfields of the complex numbers, is that correct? – Mettek Jun 12 '22 at 23:34
  • @Mettek Yes that is correct. – Vivaan Daga Jun 13 '22 at 03:24
  • @MJD what construction $ℕ$ uses that axiom? could you lay it out, or give a link about a place i could read about it? I wasn’t able to find it on google myself. – Mettek Jun 13 '22 at 08:38
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    @Mettek Google “Inductive Set”. – Vivaan Daga Jun 13 '22 at 08:57
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    @Mettek Googling "inductive set" turns out to be unhelpful because the term has several different meanings, some quite advanced. The Wikipedia article is particularly obscure. I suggest The natural numbers as the intersection of all inductive sets on this site; it also suggests that the idea is explained in Enderton's Elements of Set Theory. – MJD Jun 14 '22 at 10:23
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I think the other answers miss an important part of the issue. You asked:

Does this work as a rigorous construction?

The comments hint at the problem: You cannot just make up some axioms and then assume that there is necessarily a family of objects satisfying them. Because sometimes there isn't.

An example that comes up on this site with great frequency: people ask if you can take the real numbers and add a new element $\infty$ which satisfies $\infty\cdot 0 = 1$. In form, this looks almost exactly like what you want to do: “start with the real numbers and add a new element $i$ which satisfies $i^2=−1$.” But the two cases are quite different: $i$ works, and $\infty$ doesn't. There is no reasonable extension of the real numbers that has such an element. (Of course you can insert one, but you can't also preserve the associative, distributive, or additive inverse laws, so what you get no longer looks much like an extension of the real numbers.)

People similarly ask on this site if they can add a number $\epsilon$ to the real numbers with the property that $0 < \epsilon \le r$ for all positive real numbers $r$. And the answer is no, they cannot, it does not work. (Consider $\epsilon\cdot \frac12$.)

So the strategy of "real numbers, and add a new number such that (whatever)” can't be pursued without some care.

Some of the comments to your question point this out: you can make up whatever rules you want, but then you have to prove that there is some system that actually follows those rules, and that still contains something recognizable as the real numbers. The usual constructions of the complex numbers do this. We take some concrete set of objects (ordered pairs of reals, $2×2$ matrices, sets of polynomials, etc.) and show that they satisfy the properties that you wanted:

  1. We can define addition and multiplication operations on these objects; for example using the ordered pairs we define $(a,b)\cdot(c, d) = (ac-bd, ad+bc)$.
  2. We can identify a subset of the objects that behave just like the real numbers as regards addition and multiplication: in this case the real number $r$ corresponds to $(r, 0)$.
  3. There is some object $i$ that has the property $i\cdot i=-1$. In this case $i=(0, 1)$ works. ($i=(0, -1)$ also works.)

The concrete objects are essential here, because without them, you don't know that your definition isn't inconsistent or even incoherent.

MJD
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  • A famous example of how wrong this can go is the crisis of naïve set theory in early 20th century. Mathematicians had made up a bunch of reasonable-sounding properties that they thought sets ought to have, and then it transpired that nothing actually had those properties, because they were inconsistent. – MJD Jun 14 '22 at 18:23
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Define the complex numbers as $\Bbb C =\{a+bi\mid a,b\in\Bbb R\}$, where the sums are just formal sums (without evaluation). Define addition componentwise as $$(a+bi)+(c+di) = (a+c)+(b+d)i$$ and multiplication (multiply out) $$(a+bi)\cdot(c+di) = ac+adi+bci+bdi^2$$ which becomes with $i^2=-1$ $$(ac-bd)+(ad+bc)i$$ One can show that $\Bbb C$ is a field.

Wuestenfux
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  • Unless you rigorously define "formal sums" then this is mathematically meaningless. See this answer for more on this - esp. Hankel's scathing (justified) critique of Cauchy's similar attempt. – Bill Dubuque Jul 06 '22 at 19:31